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"To have"

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by sunilrawat » Mon Aug 29, 2011 4:20 am
How to differentiate between "has had" and "had"? eg.
1. He has had many affairs.
2. He had many affairs.

Although 1 uses present perfect tense, why it has been used at all? Isn't 2 sufficient to convey the message? Or is the usage in each different?

Similarly,
His wife divorced him because he had had an affair.
What's wrong with "he had an affair"?
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by GmatKiss » Mon Aug 29, 2011 4:25 am
sunilrawat wrote:How to differentiate between "has had" and "had"? eg.
1. He has had many affairs.
2. He had many affairs.

Although 1 uses present perfect tense, why it has been used at all? Isn't 2 sufficient to convey the message? Or is the usage in each different?

Similarly,
His wife divorced him because he had had an affair.
Means, he once had an affair, for which his wife divorced him
What's wrong with "he had an affair"?
Means, he had an affair when his wife divorced him.

Please correct me if am wrong!

Thanks,
GK
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