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by schumi_gmat » Tue Nov 25, 2008 11:12 am
Thanks PC and iamcste
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by NSNguyen » Sat Nov 29, 2008 7:05 pm
I never seen dated to be
:))
Please share your idea and your reasoning :D
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by Stacey Koprince » Wed Dec 03, 2008 1:09 pm
Thanks for typing out the question, parallel_chase!

Rock samples
------<taken from R of an A>
--------------------------<about twice the size of (another) A>
--------------------------------------------------------------<that eradicated D>
has (have!) been dated... etc.

Hopefully that formatting is clear - the stuff in brackets modifies the noun above where each <> starts. So, first, we have that subject-verb agreement issue. Eliminate A and B.

Next, we have "have been dated... (to be) (as being) or (at)"

The idiom is "dated at." No great explanation - there never is for an idiom. It just is what it is and we're supposed to memorize it.

It might help you remember to think of it this way:
Someone dated something AT a certain date - right now, they know (or claim) that it is this certain date.

If someone dated something TO BE a certain date, it could be interpreted as: what it will be in the future - it's going to be that date.

Or, you can just memorize it. :)

Eliminate C and D. That leaves E.

(And good catch to those who pointed out that D is missing the verb "are" - it's easy to miss little things like that. We can eliminate B for that same reason, and we can also eliminate A for a bad subj-verb match (is).
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