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HAS vs HAVE when dealing with 2 singular subjects?

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by mustbeatgmat » Thu Oct 07, 2010 11:23 pm
Hey guys,

Just had a quick question. If there are 2 singular statements, do we treat it has plural then? For example, "The rise in gas prices and the rise in sales tax has/have burdened many people."

Do we use has or have since "the rise" is singular but is used twice?

Just a little confused.

Thank you!
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by uwhusky » Thu Oct 07, 2010 11:26 pm
They're considered plural.
Yep.
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by pradeepkaushal9518 » Fri Oct 08, 2010 12:12 am
there are 2 sentences combined together so they are plural but indivisiual sentences are singular
A SMALL TOWN GUY
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by Ramneet Singh » Fri Oct 08, 2010 1:47 am
mustbeatgmat wrote:Hey guys,

Just had a quick question. If there are 2 singular statements, do we treat it has plural then? For example, "The rise in gas prices and the rise in sales tax has/have burdened many people."

Do we use has or have since "the rise" is singular but is used twice?

Just a little confused.

Thank you!
"the rise in taxes and burden on the common man "is singular
"the rise in taxes and the burden on the common man "is plural
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by mustbeatgmat » Fri Oct 08, 2010 3:19 am
Thank you!!
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by bdevas01 » Fri Oct 08, 2010 4:27 am
Yeah, the "and" indicated two subjects so the "have" is the correct option.

Remember, when you have "and" it is typically to list a series of subjects, which makes the subject plural. The verb must agree with the subject so the verb must be plural as well.

Example: The clown and the elephant have prepared an act for the circus.

Here the subject is "The clown and the elephant" and so the verb must be "have" to agree with the subject.
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