Okay, no worries. For this question, it is critical to recognize that (a-b) and (b-a) are opposites of one another.
In other words, (a-b) = -(b-a)
Or, (b-a) = -(a-b)
From this, we can conclude that one of them is always positive, and one of them is always negative.
(a-b) cannot be zero because we can't have 1/0.
Therefore, in order for
1/(a-b) < b-a
We need (a-b) to be the negative one, and (b-a) to be the positive one.
That way, the inequality will be negative < positive
In other words, we need a < b.
Statement 1:
Tells us exactly what we need. Sufficient.
Statement 2:
1 < |a - b|
Here, either one could be the bigger one, which means that (a-b) could be positive, or could be negative. Insufficient.
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