I received a PM asking me to comment.
Traditionalists hold that none is a contraction of NOT ONE and thus should take a singular verb.
Many modern grammarians, however, assert that none can serve to mean NOT ANY, in which case it takes a plural verb.
OG12, DS 136:
Sentence: None of the six numbers IS less than 75.
Meaning: NOT ONE of the six numbers IS less than 75.
Here, the singular verb emphasizes the individual nature of each number: NOT ONE is less than 75.
OG12, CR 118:
Sentence: None of Northern Air's competitors ARE considering buying Skybuses.
Meaning: NOT ANY of Northern Air's competitors ARE considering buying Skybuses.
Here, the plural verb emphasizes the nature of the competitors as a group: NOT ANY are considering buying skybuses.
OG13, SC 27:
Sentence: None of the attempts EXPLAINS why most people do not commit crimes.
Meaning: NOT ONE of the attempts EXPLAINS why most people do not commit crimes.
Here, the singular verb emphasizes the individual nature of each attempt: NOT ONE explains why most people do not commit crimes.
Given all the debate, I agree with the other experts: it is VERY UNLIKELY that the GMAT will test this issue.
If I were forced to make a choice, I would opt for none of + singular verb. We have to play by GMAC's rules, and SC27 seems to indicate that GMAC prefers the singular verb (at least in SCs).
It should be noted that none of the attempts explains is an excerpt from the NON-UNDERLINED portion of SC27, so whether none should take a singular or plural verb is not being tested by this SC.
As for the sentence from the journal:
None of the drivers has yet noticed a drop off.
Since each driver on his own has not yet noticed A DROP OFF, the individual nature of each driver seems to be at issue here.
Thus, the singular verb has seems appropriate.
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