Usage of Has-Experts please help

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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Tue Jun 12, 2012 12:18 pm
khandelwal.ab wrote:Hello experts, I came across this sentence while reading an american scientific journal:

None of the drivers has yet noticed a drop off in electric range due to age of the battery packs.

is the usage of has correct here shouldn't has be replaced by have?
Hello!

"None of them have" and "none of them has" are both in common usage. While "none of them has" is technically "more correct", arguments can (and have!) been made for using "have" instead.

I can't recall a GMAT question that required you to choose one version over the other.
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by bobdylan » Tue Jun 12, 2012 1:03 pm
Now I have a doubt! The Manhattan SC books tells that SANAM( some,any, none,all,most) are singular when goes together with a singular subject(EX: Most of the cake is...) and plural otherwise( none of the driver ARE...).
Please experts, explain!

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by bobdylan » Tue Jun 12, 2012 1:07 pm
bobdylan wrote:Now I have a doubt! The Manhattan SC books tells that SANAM( some,any, none,all,most) are singular when goes together with a singular subject(EX: Most of the cake is...) and plural otherwise( none of the driverS ARE...).
Please experts, explain!

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by Bill@VeritasPrep » Tue Jun 12, 2012 1:32 pm
As you said, it depends on the noun in the prepositional phrase:

"Most of the students are already finished with their essays."--plural

"Most of the cake has been eaten."--singular

Fortunately, the SANAM pronouns are not tested.
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by khandelwal.ab » Wed Jun 13, 2012 7:07 am
I understand that this area will most likely will not be tested on the test.

But still, I am unsure whether "None of the drivers has yet noticed a drop off in electric range due to age of the battery packs." isn't completely wrong?

Should has be replaced by have as the subject here is drivers (plural)?

I am sorry for being persistent, but this will keep bugging me until I know whether the usage here is correct..

Thanks!!

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by abhi.iitb » Wed Jun 13, 2012 7:34 am
I totally agree with "bobdylan". If we go by Manhattan SC guide 4th edition it should be "have" not "has".

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by Bill@VeritasPrep » Wed Jun 13, 2012 8:44 am
khandelwal.ab wrote:I understand that this area will most likely will not be tested on the test.

But still, I am unsure whether "None of the drivers has yet noticed a drop off in electric range due to age of the battery packs." isn't completely wrong?

Should has be replaced by have as the subject here is drivers (plural)?

I am sorry for being persistent, but this will keep bugging me until I know whether the usage here is correct..

Thanks!!
Yes, I would go with have.
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by EducationAisle » Wed Jun 13, 2012 9:02 am
Interesting to consider this example from OG13:

None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed do.
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by GMATGuruNY » Wed Jun 13, 2012 9:58 am
I received a PM asking me to comment.

Traditionalists hold that none is a contraction of NOT ONE and thus should take a singular verb.
Many modern grammarians, however, assert that none can serve to mean NOT ANY, in which case it takes a plural verb.

OG12, DS 136:
Sentence: None of the six numbers IS less than 75.
Meaning: NOT ONE of the six numbers IS less than 75.
Here, the singular verb emphasizes the individual nature of each number: NOT ONE is less than 75.

OG12, CR 118:
Sentence: None of Northern Air's competitors ARE considering buying Skybuses.
Meaning: NOT ANY of Northern Air's competitors ARE considering buying Skybuses.
Here, the plural verb emphasizes the nature of the competitors as a group: NOT ANY are considering buying skybuses.

OG13, SC 27:
Sentence: None of the attempts EXPLAINS why most people do not commit crimes.
Meaning: NOT ONE of the attempts EXPLAINS why most people do not commit crimes.
Here, the singular verb emphasizes the individual nature of each attempt: NOT ONE explains why most people do not commit crimes.

Given all the debate, I agree with the other experts: it is VERY UNLIKELY that the GMAT will test this issue.
If I were forced to make a choice, I would opt for none of + singular verb. We have to play by GMAC's rules, and SC27 seems to indicate that GMAC prefers the singular verb (at least in SCs).
It should be noted that none of the attempts explains is an excerpt from the NON-UNDERLINED portion of SC27, so whether none should take a singular or plural verb is not being tested by this SC.

As for the sentence from the journal:
None of the drivers has yet noticed a drop off.
Since each driver on his own has not yet noticed A DROP OFF, the individual nature of each driver seems to be at issue here.
Thus, the singular verb has seems appropriate.
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