Probability problem

This topic has expert replies
Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
Posts: 32
Joined: Fri Sep 17, 2010 4:01 am

Probability problem

by Veronica » Sun Sep 19, 2010 5:39 pm
A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability f getting exactly three red hats or exactly three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?
a. 1/8; b.1/4; c.1/2; d.3/8; e.7/12

I have read the explanation in the answer key already, but I cannot understand thoroughly. Please help me analyze and solve this problem. Thank you!
Source: — Problem Solving |

Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 8
Joined: Thu Aug 19, 2010 8:24 am

by shaw3257 » Sun Sep 19, 2010 6:02 pm
Veronica wrote:A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability f getting exactly three red hats or exactly three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?
a. 1/8; b.1/4; c.1/2; d.3/8; e.7/12

I have read the explanation in the answer key already, but I cannot understand thoroughly. Please help me analyze and solve this problem. Thank you!
Since there are only two options, red and blue hats, and there's an equal number of the two, we know the following:

the probability of selecting a red hat = 1/2
the probability of selecting a blue hat = 1/2
Hats are selected one by one with replacement

So we have two cases:

Case 1: 3 out of 4 hats are Red

The number of ways we can pick three red hats: (I just listed them)

RED RED RED BLUE
RED RED BLUE RED
RED BLUE RED RED
BLUE RED RED RED

Since each event is independent of the last (the hats are replaced after each selection) we know that selecting either a blue or a red hat will always have the probably of 1/2

Therefore:

RED RED RED BLUE = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
RED RED BLUE RED = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
RED BLUE RED RED = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
BLUE RED RED RED = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16

Total for Case 1 = 4/16 = 1/4



Case 2: 3 out of 4 hats are Blue (Same process as case one)

BLUE BLUE BLUE RED = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
BLUE BLUE RED BLUE = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
BLUE RED BLUE BLUE = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
RED BLUE BLUE BLUE = 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16

Total for Case 2 = 4/16 = 1/4


Probability of Case 1 or Case 2 = Probability of Case 1 + Probability of Case 2 = 1/4 + 1/4 = 1/2

Pick C

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 509
Joined: Wed Apr 21, 2010 1:08 pm
Location: Irvine, CA
Thanked: 199 times
Followed by:85 members
GMAT Score:750

by tpr-becky » Sun Sep 19, 2010 8:19 pm
Probability is about and/ or - probability of getting something AND another thing is multiplied. Probability of getting something OR another thing is added. This problem contains both. WE have probability of getting 3 red OR 3 Blue so we add these probabilities.
Now you should work each one out
THe probability of Getting 3 red - that means you get RRRB OR RRBR OR RBRR OR BRRR - since we are replacing the probabiliyt of getting any given color is always 1/2 so

(1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2) + (1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2) + (1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2) + (1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2)=1/16(4)=1/4.

The same will be true for gettin 3 blue so you can use that 1/4 number again.

So the answer is 1/4 + 1/4= 1/2
Becky
Master GMAT Instructor
The Princeton Review
Irvine, CA

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 270
Joined: Wed Apr 07, 2010 9:00 am
Thanked: 24 times
Followed by:2 members

by neerajkumar1_1 » Sun Sep 19, 2010 9:11 pm
I guess everyone has explained pretty well...
here is my view on it...

there are 2 things that should really catch ur eye in this problem...

1. exactly 3 red or exactly 3 blue
2. replacing.

essentially... u should know what the two mean...

1 means is that the required combination of hats is RRR(R/B) or BBB(R/B)
2 means that every time since u put back what u took out... the total number of items remain the same...

prob of taking out red =4/8 = 1/2
prob of taking out blue =4/8 = 1/2

these 2 probabilities will remain constant throughout...

Hence final prob will be...

=RRR(R/B) or BBB(R/B)

=1/2*1/2*1/2*(8/8) + 1/2*1/2*1/2*(8/8)

= 1/4


why the last term is 8/8 or 1 is because there is no condition on the last draw.... hence the last last draw has a prob of 1... i.e prob of blue or red...

Hope this helps...