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by sanju09 » Wed May 02, 2012 5:12 am
For a number n (n ≠ 0), "¡n = 1/n and *n = 1 - (1/n). Therefore, for a number m (m ≠ 0, 1), *("¡(*(m))) =
(A) m
(B) "¡m
(C) *m
(D) "¡("¡m)
(E) *(*m)



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by klmehta03 » Wed May 02, 2012 5:34 am
IMO is B. But it works only for postive nuumbers. OA pls?
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by spartacus1412 » Wed May 02, 2012 8:10 pm
should be B
Its do or die this time!
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by Shalabh's Quants » Wed May 02, 2012 11:05 pm
sanju09 wrote:For a number n (n ≠ 0), "¡n = 1/n and *n = 1 - (1/n). Therefore, for a number m (m ≠ 0, 1), *("¡(*(m))) =
(A) m
(B) "¡m
(C) *m
(D) "¡("¡m)
(E) *(*m)

*("¡(*(m))) = *("¡(m-1)/m) = *(m/m-1) = 1-(m/m-1) = 1/m;

Which is equal to AO B.



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