if x is NOT = 0, is (x^2 +1)/x > Y?
(1) x = y
(2) y>0
I don't understand how (1) is not sufficient.
To multiply by variable, we need to take the positive and the negative:
(x^2 +1)/x > Y
x^2 +1 > xy ?
And stmt 1 says y=y hence the question becomes, x^2+1>x^2? In which case, YES! regardless of whether x is negative or even a fraction.
now if we take the negative of x:
(-x)(x^2 +1)/x > Y(-x)
-x^2 -1 > -xy
x^2 + 1 < xy which equals x^2 + 1 < x^2
Even here, statement (1) is sufficient to answer the question! how is it insufficient!?
(1) x = y
(2) y>0
I don't understand how (1) is not sufficient.
To multiply by variable, we need to take the positive and the negative:
(x^2 +1)/x > Y
x^2 +1 > xy ?
And stmt 1 says y=y hence the question becomes, x^2+1>x^2? In which case, YES! regardless of whether x is negative or even a fraction.
now if we take the negative of x:
(-x)(x^2 +1)/x > Y(-x)
-x^2 -1 > -xy
x^2 + 1 < xy which equals x^2 + 1 < x^2
Even here, statement (1) is sufficient to answer the question! how is it insufficient!?
"Do not confuse motion and progress. A rocking horse keeps moving but does not make any progress."
- Alfred A. Montapert, Philosopher.
- Alfred A. Montapert, Philosopher.
