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bizzzschool
- Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
- Posts: 13
- Joined: Thu Dec 11, 2008 7:52 am
I was doing a sentence correction problem and had a question about the subject-verb agreement of the part at the beginning (not underlined). It is #17 in the GMAT 11th edition guide. It says:
"None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have."
(Answer: Have ---> do) I understand the parallelism of the answer do and do.
My question is about "None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains". Why is it explains and not explain? I understand SANAM and therefore, we look past attempts, but I do not see clearly what we are looking for to singular plural. I guess it is crime, which is singular, which warrants explains. Is that correct?
Thank you for your help.
"None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed have."
(Answer: Have ---> do) I understand the parallelism of the answer do and do.
My question is about "None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains". Why is it explains and not explain? I understand SANAM and therefore, we look past attempts, but I do not see clearly what we are looking for to singular plural. I guess it is crime, which is singular, which warrants explains. Is that correct?
Thank you for your help.












