BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem
TTP OnDemand GMAT Video Course
Featured Course

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Scott Woodbury-Stewart’s private virtual classroom — 400 hours of master-class video lessons for the GMAT Focus Edition.

  • 715+ score guarantee — highest in the industry (99th percentile)
  • 52 chapters · 1,500+ lessons · 4,000+ practice questions
  • 400 hours of video · 1,500+ instructor-led HD smartboard lessons
  • 300,000+ students accepted to Harvard, Stanford, Wharton, Booth & Sloan & more
  • 24/7 live support + weekly Zoom office hours with GMAT instructors
  • TTP AI Assist — 24/7 AI-powered virtual tutor for instant help
  • 1,200+ flashcards + AI-powered study assistant & daily calendar
  • OnDemand, LiveTeach & GMAT Bootcamp formats available
  • Also: GRE, SAT Math & Executive Assessment courses
  • MBA Admissions Consulting now available
  • 🏆 2025 EdTech Breakthrough Award: Test Prep Solution Provider of the Year
  • 200,000+ students served
  • 5-day free trial — $0 to start, no auto-billing, cancel anytime
★★★★★ 5.0 (559 reviews)
130-pt guarantee
$0 to start then $127/mo
Start Free 5-Day Trial Read 559 Reviews →

Need some clarification on the differences

Expert replies
Post new topic Locked
Previous Topic Next Topic
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 1
Joined: Tue Jun 29, 2010 12:57 pm
by lilyfunwork » Tue Oct 12, 2010 11:05 am
I noticed that in the gramma rules we can say,"Mary is smart than John." The verb to be for John can be omitted and implied.

However, if we go, "French wine tasts better than American wine." The sentence is considered incorrect. I have to say "French wine tasts better than American wine does." I am quite confused about the differences between the two structures. Can you explain to me what structure I can use "implied verb" and what structure I can't.

Please advise, thanks!

L.C.
Top
Join the discussion
Log in to postLogin with Googleuse password
QUOTE IN REPLY
Source: — Sentence Correction |
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 210
Joined: Wed Apr 16, 2008 11:25 pmFollowed by: 1 member
Thanked: 6 times

by ashokkadam » Tue Oct 12, 2010 11:19 am
I think if we are dealing with people, then it is automatically implied.
otherwise we need verb.
lilyfunwork wrote:I noticed that in the gramma rules we can say,"Mary is smart than John." The verb to be for John can be omitted and implied.

However, if we go, "French wine tasts better than American wine." The sentence is considered incorrect. I have to say "French wine tasts better than American wine does." I am quite confused about the differences between the two structures. Can you explain to me what structure I can use "implied verb" and what structure I can't.

Please advise, thanks!

L.C.
Force and mind are opposites; morality ends where a gun begins.
Top
Join the discussion
Log in to postLogin with Googleuse password
QUOTE IN REPLY
Post new topic Locked
• Page 1 of 1