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Source: — Problem Solving |
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by vittalgmat » Sun Apr 19, 2009 5:23 pm
let me take a crack at this.

Circumferance of a circle is 2*pi*r.
here D = 1 ft. so r = 0.5 ft.

At each end the belt covers half the circle. So totally it covers 1 full circle.
ie. 2*pi*0.5 = pi

This is the amount that needs to be subtracted from the from 15 and divided by 2.

ie. (15 -pi)/2

What is the OA ?
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by kanha81 » Mon Apr 20, 2009 7:52 am
vittalgmat wrote: ie. (15 -pi)/2

What is the OA ?
You got it! OA [spoiler][A][/spoiler]
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by SFG » Sat May 30, 2009 1:17 pm
Dumb question: but do we divide by 2 because there are two circles?
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by tdadic84 » Sun May 31, 2009 6:27 am
SFG...

I believe we divide it by 2 becuase we need the length of from dot to dot...

if we do not divide it by 2..we would have the lenght both the top and bottom of the belt, ween in fact, we only need 1 lenght...

I dont know if I explained it right..but if you dont understand, please post again so many someone else can explain it better
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