In 1973, a remote town first acquired television. Shortly before broadcasts began there, a study was made of children's behavior. A similar study in the same community, after two years of TV, showed that the aggression rate among children of this age had increased by 160%. The conclusion drawn was that TV plays an important role in generating aggressive behavior in children. A second study, covering the same years, was made in two similar communities that had had television for decades. This study showed no change in the aggression rate from 1973 to 1975. The results of the second study:
A) suggest that the prevalence of violent themes in TV programming may be explained by the tendencies toward violence that are deeply-rooted in human nature.
B) indicate that different social groups may react quite differently to similar stimuli.
C) demonstrate that long-term exposure to TV has no more severe effects than short-term exposure.
D) support the conclusion drawn from the first study.
E) disprove the conclusion drawn from the first study.
Well this question is from 800score.com. But I am still confused with the OA. IMO the answer should be C. As we see the first line it says that "town first acquired televsion" which means that first television acquired during 1973 and after 2 years i.e. 1975 the study showed the behaviour of the children. whereas the second study covers the same years i.e. 1973 to 1975, but the communities had televsion for decades. That means during the initial period it may have happened that the same results as of the 1st study was seen. So during these decades the aggression rate would have decreased or would have resulted in less severe effects than the short-term exposure.
Kindly explain how I am wrong & how to come to the OA. Request for the logic behind the OA which is D.
A) suggest that the prevalence of violent themes in TV programming may be explained by the tendencies toward violence that are deeply-rooted in human nature.
B) indicate that different social groups may react quite differently to similar stimuli.
C) demonstrate that long-term exposure to TV has no more severe effects than short-term exposure.
D) support the conclusion drawn from the first study.
E) disprove the conclusion drawn from the first study.
Well this question is from 800score.com. But I am still confused with the OA. IMO the answer should be C. As we see the first line it says that "town first acquired televsion" which means that first television acquired during 1973 and after 2 years i.e. 1975 the study showed the behaviour of the children. whereas the second study covers the same years i.e. 1973 to 1975, but the communities had televsion for decades. That means during the initial period it may have happened that the same results as of the 1st study was seen. So during these decades the aggression rate would have decreased or would have resulted in less severe effects than the short-term exposure.
Kindly explain how I am wrong & how to come to the OA. Request for the logic behind the OA which is D.
