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difference between 'was changed' and 'had changed'

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by Shalini Suresh » Thu Feb 14, 2013 1:39 am
Hi,
There are 2 sentenced below

1) After the test format WAS changed, scores dropped by more than 25%.
2) After the test format HAD changed, scores dropped by more than 25%.

Both sentences seem grammatically right. Could someone explain the difference in meaning ?

Thanks !
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by hemant_rajput » Thu Feb 14, 2013 2:15 am
Shalini Suresh wrote:Hi,
There are 2 sentenced below

1) After the test format WAS changed, scores dropped by more than 25%.
2) After the test format HAD changed, scores dropped by more than 25%.

Both sentences seem grammatically right. Could someone explain the difference in meaning ?

Thanks !

Hi Shalini ,


Second sentence is not grammatically correct..

"Had + Past participle" is a past perfect tense.

USE 1 Completed Action Before Something in the Past
E.g. : - I had never seen such a beautiful beach before I went to Brazil.

USE 2 Duration Before Something in the Past (Non-Continuous Verbs)
E.g. :- By the time Alex finished his studies, he had been in London for over eight years.



You can refer this link for more thorough explanation.

https://www.englishpage.com/verbpage/pastperfect.html
I'm no expert, just trying to work on my skills. If I've made any mistakes please bear with me.
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by ceilidh.erickson » Thu Feb 14, 2013 8:22 am
There are two differences between these sentences: verb tense and verb voice.

1) WAS CHANGED is in the simple past tense, passive voice. The simple past tense tells us that it was a single completed action in the past. Even though this happened before the "dropped," we don't need to use past perfect, because "after" already tells us the time relationship between these two events.

The passive voice tells us that the action was done to the subject; someone else did the changing, and the test format was the thing changed.

2) HAD CHANGED is in the past perfect tense, active voice. The past perfect is used to show past events that happened before some other past events, to show time relationships. Even though it's not strictly necessary because of the "after," the past perfect here is highlighting that the format change came before the score drop.

The active voice here is suggesting that the test changed itself; it's the one performing the action. We use this in English all the time: "The test changed." Is it really possible for the test to change itself, logically speaking? Not really. But the GMAT usually doesn't get too picky about these kinds of distinctions, unless the meaning is impossible (e.g. "The test completed." vs. "The test was completed." A test might be said to change, but it certainly can't complete itself).

So, the differences in meaning between these sentences are very subtle. Don't worry - the GMAT is very, very unlikely to test you on differences this subtle!
Ceilidh Erickson
EdM in Mind, Brain, and Education
Harvard Graduate School of Education
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by Shalini Suresh » Thu Feb 14, 2013 9:31 am
ceilidh.erickson wrote:There are two differences between these sentences: verb tense and verb voice.

1) WAS CHANGED is in the simple past tense, passive voice. The simple past tense tells us that it was a single completed action in the past. Even though this happened before the "dropped," we don't need to use past perfect, because "after" already tells us the time relationship between these two events.

The passive voice tells us that the action was done to the subject; someone else did the changing, and the test format was the thing changed.

2) HAD CHANGED is in the past perfect tense, active voice. The past perfect is used to show past events that happened before some other past events, to show time relationships. Even though it's not strictly necessary because of the "after," the past perfect here is highlighting that the format change came before the score drop.

The active voice here is suggesting that the test changed itself; it's the one performing the action. We use this in English all the time: "The test changed." Is it really possible for the test to change itself, logically speaking? Not really. But the GMAT usually doesn't get too picky about these kinds of distinctions, unless the meaning is impossible (e.g. "The test completed." vs. "The test was completed." A test might be said to change, but it certainly can't complete itself).

So, the differences in meaning between these sentences are very subtle. Don't worry - the GMAT is very, very unlikely to test you on differences this subtle!


Thank you ceilidh.erickson for your detailed explanation.
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