<tense>
I am wondering that how can I correctly, at least in SC perspective, use the perfect expression combining with 'and'.
For example, when I juxtapose perfect expression and past expression, or even, perfect and perfect, it is hard to decide the repetition of the word "have" after "and". For example,
P.P. and P. -> ~ have written and slept : is the second verb slept clearly represents P. but not P.P?
P.P. and P.P. -> ~ have written and have slept or ~ have written and slept? : first one is right?
Thank you ahead.
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<Position of modifier>
1. Out of America's fascination with all things antique has grown a market for bygone styles of furniture and fixtures that is bringing back the chaise lounge, the overstuffed sofa, and the claw-footed bathtub. (0)
: this is the correct sentence from SC and I cant understand how the that clause can modify "a market".
In my understanding, something brings back the lounge or sofa things should be "bygone styles" but not a market
Like this,
Out of America's fascination with all antique things has grown a market for bygone styles of furniture and fixtures that bring back the chaise lounge, the overstuffed sofa, and the claw-footed bathtub.
Plus) plz explain the differ btw "all antique things" and "all things antique"
2. plz clear which one is modified in the following sentences, repectably.
1) Modifier N1 and N2 (both?)
2) N1 and N2 Modifier (both?)
3) Modifier N1 and Modifier N2 (wordy?)
4) Modifier N1 and N2 N3 (I saw Modifier and, N1 and N2 combined, modify N3, respectably. Is it allowed?)
I am wondering that how can I correctly, at least in SC perspective, use the perfect expression combining with 'and'.
For example, when I juxtapose perfect expression and past expression, or even, perfect and perfect, it is hard to decide the repetition of the word "have" after "and". For example,
P.P. and P. -> ~ have written and slept : is the second verb slept clearly represents P. but not P.P?
P.P. and P.P. -> ~ have written and have slept or ~ have written and slept? : first one is right?
Thank you ahead.
----------------------------------
<Position of modifier>
1. Out of America's fascination with all things antique has grown a market for bygone styles of furniture and fixtures that is bringing back the chaise lounge, the overstuffed sofa, and the claw-footed bathtub. (0)
: this is the correct sentence from SC and I cant understand how the that clause can modify "a market".
In my understanding, something brings back the lounge or sofa things should be "bygone styles" but not a market
Like this,
Out of America's fascination with all antique things has grown a market for bygone styles of furniture and fixtures that bring back the chaise lounge, the overstuffed sofa, and the claw-footed bathtub.
Plus) plz explain the differ btw "all antique things" and "all things antique"
2. plz clear which one is modified in the following sentences, repectably.
1) Modifier N1 and N2 (both?)
2) N1 and N2 Modifier (both?)
3) Modifier N1 and Modifier N2 (wordy?)
4) Modifier N1 and N2 N3 (I saw Modifier and, N1 and N2 combined, modify N3, respectably. Is it allowed?)
). Since the two verbs are conjoined, we assume that both are taking place in the same time period and that both are (here) present perfect. Since that's a natural assumption to make, we consider it redundant to add a second "have". 
