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Surge in sales

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by goelmohit2002 » Sat Sep 05, 2009 8:34 am
Hi All,

The below is OG-12, Q#2. The OA is [spoiler]"D"[/spoiler]. For kicking out E, OG says

"For a recovery finally is awkward and - to the extent that it can be seen as grammatical - does not make sense."

Can someone please tell what does OG mean to say here ?

===================================================
Although a surge in retail sales have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally underway,
many economists say that without a large amount of spending the recovery might not last.

(A)have raised hopes that there is a recovery finally
B)raised hopes for there being a recovery finally
C)had raised hopes for a recovery finally being
D)has raised hopes that a recovery is finally
E)raised hopes for a recovery finally
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by srivas » Sat Sep 05, 2009 8:47 am
Here surge is the subject of the sentnce and is singular. so it shoul follwed by 'has not have'
Gmat710,, Hyd
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by goelmohit2002 » Sat Sep 05, 2009 8:54 am
srivas wrote:Here surge is the subject of the sentnce and is singular. so it shoul follwed by 'has not have'
yes....we can kick out A based on the same....but what is the problem with E ?
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by kyabe » Sat Sep 05, 2009 10:32 am
E says that surge in sales raised hopes for recovery. Check out the literal meaning.. Can "recovery" can have any hope? A person or a body can have hope...

Thats why E is out... Does this makes sense??
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by goelmohit2002 » Sat Sep 05, 2009 10:40 am
kyabe wrote:E says that surge in sales raised hopes for recovery. Check out the literal meaning.. Can "recovery" can have any hope? A person or a body can have hope...

Thats why E is out... Does this makes sense??
yes got it !!! Thanks Kyabe....

But one small thing....to ask....how to find out so small small thing in time pressure in unknown questions during real GMAT exam time....?

Can you please also tell what does OG mean to say by this statement "to the extent that it can be seen as grammatical"....

I am not able to decrypt what OG mean to say here....
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by scoobydooby » Sat Sep 05, 2009 11:38 am
"underway" means "in progress"
we would something is/was/will be underway/progress.
we would need a verb in front of underway to make sense. D is better than E because of this verb "is"
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by goelmohit2002 » Sat Sep 05, 2009 12:03 pm
scoobydooby wrote:"underway" means "in progress"
we would something is/was/will be underway/progress.
we would need a verb in front of underway to make sense. D is better than E because of this verb "is"
Awesome scooby...makes sense.....looks like we need verb before underway as suggested by you....

just one query...can you please tell what does OG mean to say here:

"to the extent that it can be seen as grammatical".... "
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by scoobydooby » Sat Sep 05, 2009 12:16 pm
guess it means the said construction is awkward and does not make sense. the part in the middle is setoff by commas and is a non-essential modifier :)
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by Stacey Koprince » Wed Oct 07, 2009 2:51 pm
Received a PM asking me to reply. If we were to read it as:

"raised hopes for X <a recovery finally underway>"

Is that what we were hoping for? A "recovery finally underway"? What does that mean? If we just want to talk about what we're hoping for, we're hoping for a recovery.

If we want to get more complicated, we could also say that we hope that something is true: that a recovery was finally underway. But we actually have to spell that out - I'm not just hoping for a noun: recovery. I'm hoping that something is true about that recovery - that it has already started.

The other thing you can use here (and I don't know why the explanation doesn't say this): answer E changes the tense. Now, we could write this sentence using present perfect or we could write it using past - both are okay. But they do mean two different things, obviously: present perfect means it's still true that the hopes are raised and simple past means it was just in the past. We're supposed to stick with the original meaning... so don't pick E.
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by tyronetan82 » Mon Aug 16, 2010 6:53 am
Stacey --> I picked E because it did not have a past participle, which is not needed since no two past events are involved in this sentence. And B seems awkward.

Please explain.

Thanks
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by GMATMadeEasy » Mon Aug 16, 2010 10:59 am
Could it be explained by that fact that "finally" is an adverb so it should be close to the verb . here the verb is "IS" .

There is finally a recovery - > Correct

There is a recovery finally- > InCorrect .
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by hero » Mon Aug 16, 2010 11:19 am
scoobydooby wrote:"underway" means "in progress"
we would something is/was/will be underway/progress.
we would need a verb in front of underway to make sense. D is better than E because of this verb "is"
this is how i answered the question.

the verb started in the past and continued into the future. need to use "has".
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by Stacey Koprince » Sun Aug 22, 2010 8:05 am
I picked E because it did not have a past participle, which is not needed since no two past events are involved in this sentence.
From the way that you worded this, I think you may be misunderstanding what a past participle is and when it is used.

"no two past events" seems to refer to the past perfect tense. That tense is used when there are two past events that took place at separate points in time. The past perfect tense is used to indicate the earlier of the two events.

Past perfect is constructued by using the verb "had" plus the past participle of whatever verb you want to use. This is only ONE way in which a past participle is used.

You can also use a past participle in the present perfect tense. That is constructed using "has" or "have" plus the past participle. This tense is used to indicate something that started in the past but is still true or still happening today. A surge in my practice test score has raised my hopes that I am improving. I took the practice test yesterday, and my hopes were raised then, but my hopes are still raised today - it's still true today that my hopes were raised yesterday. We can use present perfect to indicate that kind of meaning.

You can also use a past participle by itself to indicate a modifier, by the way. Basically - a past participle does not only indicate the past perfect tense; there are a lot of ways to use a past participle.
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by crack30 » Sat Oct 22, 2011 8:08 pm
yes,I want to ask here.

first I use a surge matched has eliminate A, but I see sth from og: it just says" there is "--->wordy. I do not know why. I guess because there is emphasize a thing happened naturally, right? need explanation thanks

and in B, og says for there being is wordy too. but why ? just because there being. need help
in the same way, I hope some one can help me to explan if og says being is wordy, what should I do when I see being in other SC? directly delete it just because of being??

thanks in advance
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by GmatKiss » Mon Oct 24, 2011 1:12 am
IMO : D
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