In his research paper, Dr. Frosh, director of the Payne Whitney Clinic, distinguishes mood swings, which may be violent without their being grounded in mental disease, from genuine manic-depressive psychosis
mood swings, which may be violent without their being grounded in mental disease, from genuine manic-depressive psychosis
mood swings, perhaps violent without being grounded in mental disease, and genuine manic-depressive psychosis
between mood swings, which may be violent without being grounded in mental disease, and genuine maniac-depressive psychosis
between mood swings, perhaps violent without being grounded in mental disease, from genuine maniac-depressive psychosis
genuine maniac-depressive psychosis and mood swings, which may be violent without being grounded in mental disease
Here I rejected A only because of its use of possessive pronoun 'their'.
However, the answer explanation says A fails to use the correct idiomatic expression, i.e. between x and y. My question:
Isn't the idiom distinguish x from y equally acceptable in A if 'their' is ignored?
mood swings, which may be violent without their being grounded in mental disease, from genuine manic-depressive psychosis
mood swings, perhaps violent without being grounded in mental disease, and genuine manic-depressive psychosis
between mood swings, which may be violent without being grounded in mental disease, and genuine maniac-depressive psychosis
between mood swings, perhaps violent without being grounded in mental disease, from genuine maniac-depressive psychosis
genuine maniac-depressive psychosis and mood swings, which may be violent without being grounded in mental disease
Here I rejected A only because of its use of possessive pronoun 'their'.
However, the answer explanation says A fails to use the correct idiomatic expression, i.e. between x and y. My question:
Isn't the idiom distinguish x from y equally acceptable in A if 'their' is ignored?
