Expert opinions sought: 2 grammatically correct SC answers

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After having bumped David's excellent post, The Truth About Changing the Meaning in Sentence Correction, it got me to thinking about a few things they're saying over at Aristotle Prep. Based on what they're saying, I wonder if perhaps there has been a change in scope of sentence correction questions on the GMAT which are not reflected (or are under-represented) in OG12? Aristotle's claim is that multiple grammatically correct answer choices may be distinguishable only by their meaning relative to the original sentence. Now, granted I have not yet made my way through all OG12 SC questions, but I have yet to encounter this situation. Perhaps it does exist? Either way, though, it seems to be getting disproportionate (relative to OG12) attention by some prep sources ...

Their statement:
Over the past few months, one aspect of the feedback has been surprisingly consistent - the Sentence Correction questions were very different from those that students had practiced in the Official Guides and other practice material. This feedback was consistent irrespective of the score that the student eventually ended up with - a 500 scorer felt this way and so did a 700 scorer. A lot of the students also reported that they did not get too many (in some case none) idiom questions and that they found it very difficult to split the options.

These were some of the salient points of the feedback:
  • * One or two (in some cases none) questions testing the knowledge of idioms
    * Not possible to split the options in several questions because all the options were different
    * More than one answer choice was grammatically correct
    * A lot of questions had difficult to spot errors such as fragments and runons
As a result, the "new" SC prep guide seems to contain questions with two grammatically correct answers, where their OA is the answer most consistent in meaning with the original sentence.

EXAMPLE from their sample new question bank:
3) The acclaimed writer said that his writing, which were powerfully influenced by
storytellers in its family
and that the landscape of his childhood also shaped his
thinking and provided themes for his stories.

(A) his writing, which were powerfully influenced by storytellers in its family
(B) his writing was influenced by powerful storytellers in his family
(C) storytellers in his family powerfully influenced his writing
(D) storytellers in the family being powerful influence on his writing
(E) powerfully influential in his writing were family storytellers


Now, in this case, B is grammatically correct but is said to change the meaning of the question too much to be a correct answer. Here is the relevant snippet of their official explanation:
B does not have a grammatical error but distorts the meaning of the original sentence by using 'powerful' as an adjective to modify 'storytellers'

C is the best answer
I tend to agree. Because the family had a powerful influence on him (as stated in the original sentence), it doesn't mean they were powerful story tellers. However, doesn't this seem to bring a new dimension to sentence correction questions? It seems to me that in the past, as David's post indicates, we have not expected to see two grammatically correct answer choices whose salient distinction is their meaning relative to the original sentence. Maybe I'm incorrect in that assumption. So maybe the distinction between "changing the meaning" and "distorting the intended meaning" needs to be clarified?

Curious to hear further expert feedback on this.

Thanks!
Source: — Sentence Correction |

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by David@VeritasPrep » Fri Dec 30, 2011 11:36 am
Well you could guess that I would need to say something about this one!

First, let me say that as GMAC has made clear there had been NO drastic change to sentence correction. Some people went to the GMAC conference on the GMAT held a few months ago in New York and learned that they had not been looking at Sentence Correction correctly. They learned that memorizing lists of idioms is not the way to go and that sentence correction, like everything else on the GMAT, is based on LOGIC. Yes grammar has to be understood but grammar is really just the playing field on which logical choices are made.

Therefore, the questions in the Official Guide 12th Edition are for the most part still a pretty good indication of what is on the test. The questions on the GMAT Prep practice test are an even better indication.

If someone will show me a Official GMAT question from the Official Guide or GMATPrep that relies solely on the fact that one answer choice changes the "original meaning" and therefore that choice is eliminated - show me that and I am more than ready to say that something has changed and that there is an "original meaning"

Until then I hold that there is no such thing as an original meaning. Rather, one answer choice is merely placed in the sentence for your convenience. The test writers could just leave a blank space instead of inserting answer choice A, but that would not flow as well. They could alternate the answer choice that happens to be placed in the sentence prompt - but that would be really confusing! Instead they have done the most logical thing. They place answer choice A in the sentence prompt to facilitate your reading of the sentence. This does not make answer choice A special, any more than the first Business School you visit on a Five school tour is the "original meaning."

While there is no "original meaning" as such there is a LOGICAL MEANING. At Veritas we use the terminology "Logical Meaning" because we think that this is very clear as to what is required, namely that the meaning of the sentence be logical. If there are two different options for a sentence and one of them has an illogical meaning then we can eliminate.

In the Official Guide they refer to this as "distort the intended meaning." If you read my post on changing the meaning in Sentence Correction - referenced by chieftang above - you will see that the Official Guide does eliminate answer choices for distorting the "intended meaning." I think that this is perhaps what is meant by Aristotle in the discussion above.

The reason that we at Veritas say LOGICAL meaning is because "intended meaning" sounds too much like original meaning when they are not the same. Original Meaning refers to answer choice A. In other words you cannot change the meaning from what choice A says. In this case, A could be totally illogical and any answer choice that was more logical would be eliminated. This is what is NOT done on the GMAT.

What is possible is to eliminate an answer choice for "distorting the intended meaning." What is the intended meaning? It is the logical meaning that the author of the sentence clearly intended to convey. For example, the sentence may mean to say that "red is thought of as a 'loud color' because it attracts a lot of attention." Now perhaps an answer choice would say, "That car makes a lot of noise because it is red." Now this distorts the intended - or logical - meaning. Logically, being red does not make the actual noise coming from a car any louder. It is the attention that leads to the phrase "loud color."

Interestingly, as I note in my original posting on this subject, in the Official Guide 12th edition it is Answer Choice A that was most often eliminated for "distorting the intended meaning!"


So you see that what I think Aristotle company is really trying to say (and I do not want to speak for them so this is just me trying to make everything work together) - what I think they are saying is that there are two otherwise grammatically acceptable answers but one of them has a meaning that is not logical. This would certainly fit with the information that is being put out by GMAC...The people that write the test have said it in no uncertain terms "Sentence Correction is about Logic." Grammar is part of that, but so is meaning.

Interestingly if you look at the problem in chieftang's posting above, there are Rhetorical (style) reasons to choose C over B. Look at how choice C sets up "The writer said that storytellers...influenced his writing and that the landscape also shaped his thinking." Do you see how well that sets up in a parallel style? -- "that storytellers influenced and that the landscape shaped." Choice C is also more concise and precise. Choice B is passive voice "was influenced by" and this is NOT preferred when compared to the active voice in C. So I would say that on the things that test writers look for C is superior in what might be called style or rhetorical construction.

This is why I never use the phrase "grammatically correct." I prefer to say "grammatically acceptable." Once you have two choices that are each grammatically acceptable then you go to logical and to rhetoric and you select the best choice.

As far at the meaning goes perhaps C has the better hold on that, but it does not seem to be so clear cut that this would be the deciding factor on an Official question.

By the way, how do you know that they had a "powerful influence" and were not "powerful storytellers"? Have you met them??? This is what I mean about no original meaning. A meaning that is logical is acceptable. There are better reasons for choosing C and we do not have to speculate about original meanings.

I hope that I was able to clarify things a bit!
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by chieftang » Fri Dec 30, 2011 3:03 pm
Great feedback, David. Very helpful, again.

Based on this information, I would venture to say that the Aristotle explanation of the correct answer choice is poor and not very reflective of what we should expect from GMAC. What you're saying, and what seems to be much more intuitive, is that a "distortion of intended meaning" will go to the extent of being illogical. But in the Aristotle example, the difference between a powerful storyteller and one whose stories powerfully influenced someone is not such an egregious distortion, as both versions convey the same idea and do so logically. Clearly though, as you note, active vs passive voice is an important distinction here, and the GMAT seems to consistently prefer the former!

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