i go with B
as it tell us that Number of male drinks coffee is equal to number of female drinks tea

i think there is no typo in the solution... tea = 2/5 hence coffee 1-2/5 = 3/5

it says y/2 = 3x/5...( y the number of males... X being number of females.)

if u divide the avove equation by X .. u will get

y/2x = 3/5

hence y/x = 6/5 ... which is the ratio..

hence B is sufficient,..

Hope it helps..

Sudhir is absolutely right. But I dont think there is a typo

The statement says number of men who drink coffee = number of women who drink tea

Female coffee drinkers = 2/5
Female tea drinkers = 3/5

(1/2)M =(3/5)F

M/F = 6/5


Let me know if you think otherwise.

parallel_chase wrote:Sudhir is absolutely right. But I dont think there is a typo

The statement says number of men who drink coffee = number of women who drink tea

Female coffee drinkers = 2/5
Female tea drinkers = 3/5

(1/2)M =(3/5)F

M/F = 6/5


Let me know if you think otherwise.

Question says (ALL OF THE CUSTOMERS DRINK EITHER COFFEE OR TEA BUT NOT BOTH)
1/2 of the male customers drink coffee
2/5th of female customers drink coffee

Statement 2
number of male customers who drink coffee is equal to the number of female customers drinking tea which means
A) 1/2 of the male customers = 3/5th of the female customers
since 1/2 of the male drinks coffee the other half should drink only tea
So
B) 1/2 of the male customers = 2/5th of the female customers

which means
1/2(X) = 3/5(Y) and 1/2(X) = 2/5(Y)

This is a typo correct?

No, its not typo. Other solutions are good.

When we say all of the customers do either but not both means the SAME customer who drinks tea cannot drink coffee at the same time.

Here males are divided into two categories 1/2 for cofee and 1/2 for tea
similarly females are 2/5 for coffee and 3/5 for tea

I would like to add why (1) alone is not sufficient

it gives us that F=M-1
Nothing about total number of M and F or proportion of M/F

Am I right?

California4jx wrote:No, its not typo. Other solutions are good.

When we say all of the customers do either but not both means the SAME customer who drinks tea cannot drink coffee at the same time.

Here males are divided into two categories 1/2 for cofee and 1/2 for tea
similarly females are 2/5 for coffee and 3/5 for tea

For Statement 2 to be sufficient we take that female customers drinking tea is 3/5 (question says 2/5 drink coffee so 1-2/5 = 3/5).

In the same way let us take male customers drinking tea is 1/2 (question says 1/2 drink coffee so 1-1/2 = 2/5)

This means that 1/2 male customers = 3/5 female customers (male drinking coffee and female drinking tea which you all agree to make stmt 2 sufficient)

We can also infer that 1/2 male customers = 2/5 female customers (male drinking tea and female drinking coffee).

Like you all assume 3/5 female customer drinking tea by 1-2/5 I assume 1/2 male customer drinking tea by 1-1/2.

I still don't understand why this logic is incorrect.

mksreeram wrote:
In the same way let us take male customers drinking tea is 1/2 (question says 1/2 drink coffee so 1-1/2 = 2/5)

We can also infer that 1/2 male customers = 2/5 female customers (male drinking tea and female drinking coffee). wrong assumption

2/5 above in your computation is a typo - right ?

Lets do it with numbers.

Say, there are M = 60 and F = 50
M-Coff = 30; and M-Tea = 30 [given is 1/2 and 1/2]
F-Tea = 30 since 3/5 (50); and F-Coff = 2/5(50) = 20

so M-Tea [30] <> F-Coff [20]

hope you are now clear ....

It is clear now. I somehow confused myself with 2/5 and 3/5 of female customers being same. was conceptually bad

mksreeram wrote:Isn't this question flawed.

It says answer is B since the statement 2 is sufficient to get the ratio.

Question Says
in a coffee shop 1/2 of the male and 2/5th of the female drinks coffee

Stement 2 says
Number of male drinks coffee is equal to number of female drinks tea.

1/2 M = 3/5 F (5/5 - 2/5 (coffee))
in turn
1/2 M = 2/5 F

Both are contradicting.

Let me know your comments.

Moving the thread to DS section!!!