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fourth symphony

by k.pankaj.r » Sat Dec 24, 2011 10:22 pm
Shostakovich's Fourth Symphony had not hardly entered rehearsals when the political climate turned against the composer and made him having the piece performed impossible.
A)
B)had not hardly entered rehearsals when the political climate turned against the composer and made his having
C)had hardly entered rehearsals when the political climate turned against the composer and made his having
D)had hardly entered rehearsals when the political climate turned against the composer and made him having
E)had hardly entered rehearsals when the political climate turned against the composer and made himself having

OAC

plz help..
thnks...
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by avik.ch » Sat Dec 24, 2011 10:32 pm
A possessive case pronoun can only be used to refer a noun in possessive case : "his" should be used in this to refer " Shostakovich's Fourth Symphony "

Left with only B and C.

B is wrong due to the usage of two negative adverb - "not" and "hardly".

Hope this helps !!
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by sam2304 » Sat Dec 24, 2011 11:12 pm
avik.ch wrote:A possessive case pronoun can only be used to refer a noun in possessive case : "his" should be used in this to refer " Shostakovich's Fourth Symphony "
Can you be more elaborate on this ? Or some other links about the possessive case pronouns.
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by avik.ch » Sun Dec 25, 2011 12:49 am
This rule is called as possessive poison rule :

https://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/aga ... t9229.html

But on further research on this topic, I came across this two link that is quiet contradictory :

https://www.whiterose.org/dr.elmo/blog/a ... 03548.html
https://www.cjr.org/resources/lc/posnoun.php
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by mankey » Sun Dec 25, 2011 5:03 am
Please explain why not D? Was confused between C and D.

Help!!

Thanks.
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by user123321 » Sun Dec 25, 2011 8:38 am
if i keep fourth symphony in place of "his" in the actual statement, i am not able to make any sense out of it. could anyone explain what it means.

and also can't we assume "the composer" is referred as "him" in option D?

Thanks
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by mskgmat » Sun Dec 25, 2011 8:54 am
Could some one explain why option D is incorrect ?
Thanks a lot in advance.
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by sam2304 » Sun Dec 25, 2011 8:58 am
@user123321: Check out the link posted by avik.ch above. It explains all about the pronoun usage. :)
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by user123321 » Sun Dec 25, 2011 10:31 am
:) I had gone through them. I agree C is the answer.

But I am sure there is another explanation for this. because we have the noun "the composer" in the sentence. him can refer to that perfectly with no change in meaning. But I had gone through btg site and got some information.

https://www.beatthegmat.com/mba/2011/11/ ... ossessives
https://www.myenglishteacher.net/gerunds.html

check especially in second link
Gerunds act just like nouns. Gerunds can be followed by possessive pronouns (my, his, her, our, their, its). They can also be followed by a possessive s.
check the first link where some examples are given how the meaning changes with & without possessive case.

I think because of above reason, "his" should come there but not "him" or "he".
comments plz :)

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