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by vittalgmat » Tue Dec 30, 2008 9:12 pm
Hi Srisanj,
There are subforums for specific sections of GMAT like
Math DS, PS, Verbal SC, CR, RC.

I understand u are new to BTG.

Welcome and have fun. U will be glad u saw this forum.

-V
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by cramya » Tue Dec 30, 2008 9:26 pm
Sri,

Welcome to the forum. Its an awesome one too for the GMAT.

Like Vittal said please post the questions in the correct forum so that you get more responses. I am sure one of the moderators will move this post to the right forum if u request.

Anyways coming to the problem:

U can see n+1,n+2, n+3 are three consectuive integers and they should always be divisible by 6

If u dint know this fact its no big deal the problem could still be solved by process of elimination(with gmat any method(conventional/unconventional) works as long as u can get to the answer without spending too much time on it)

One way of doing it:


Pick n=1

(n+1) (n+2) (n+3)

2 * 3 * 4
Eliminate all choices except 2 and 4

Pick n=2

3*4*5

Eliminate 4 and your answer is 2)
Last edited by cramya on Wed Dec 31, 2008 10:34 am, edited 1 time in total.
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by logitech » Tue Dec 30, 2008 10:31 pm
CRAMYA!!

Give me a break for god's sake!!

:lol:
LGTCH
---------------------
"DON'T LET ANYONE STEAL YOUR DREAM!"
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by cramya » Tue Dec 30, 2008 11:36 pm
Give me a break for god's sake!!
Wish granted my friend. I will be taking a break too in Jan09 3rd/4th week so its all good.

Catch back with u guys in the first week of Feb 09!
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8 also right?

by deagez » Wed Dec 31, 2008 12:38 am
Call me stupid but,,,,,

if N=1
x=(1+1)(1+2)(1+3)
x=(2)(3)(4)
x=24

24 is divisible by 8 and 6 right?

Also Cramya I have no idea how you got 5 if N=1 for the third bracket, last time I checked 1+3 = 4 isnt it?
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by cramya » Wed Dec 31, 2008 10:34 am
Thks for catching that. I have adjusted the post.
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by maihuna » Wed Dec 31, 2008 11:36 am
Yes plz post in proper subsection...in fact thre should be some way to enforce that..is somebody hearing me..????

as for as ur Q goes....see it: Any three continuos no will be a multiple of 3..and at least one of them even..why? because odd is always fllowed by even and vice versa...as night followed by day(not day followed by night btw, no wants darkness!!!!!!!!!!)

so a minimum of 3 and 2 is avialable for you to buy and multiply..there by 3x2 i.e. 6...

try some n =1 2 3 etc
n = 1: 2x3x4
3x4x5
5x6x7

out of given ;ist 6 is always there..huh
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by srisanj4 » Thu Jan 01, 2009 7:32 pm
Hello Moderator and members,

please accept my sincere apologies - i will use appropriate forums going forward.

Thank you all for posting replies. Thanks for the help
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by aim-wsc » Thu Jan 01, 2009 7:56 pm
srisanj4 wrote:Hello Moderator and members,

please accept my sincere apologies - i will use appropriate forums going forward.

Thank you all for posting replies. Thanks for the help
Nevermind,
but would you suggest where this thread actually belong to? sorry I lost touch & am not preparing for GMAT.
Thanks for self-moderation, and helping newbies in the forum, people :)
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