BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

BPO sector

This topic has expert replies
Post new topic Locked
Previous Topic Next Topic
User avatar
Community Manager
Posts: 1537
Joined: Mon Aug 10, 2009 6:10 pm
Thanked: 653 times
Followed by:252 members

BPO sector

by papgust » Sat Dec 26, 2009 4:09 am
Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
Top
Source: — Sentence Correction |
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 407
Joined: Sun Nov 29, 2009 1:20 am
Location: India
Thanked: 20 times
Followed by:1 members

by hrishi19884 » Sat Dec 26, 2009 4:19 am
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
C,D,E changes the meaning of the original sentence.

Left are A and B....."has never caused" changes the tense of the sentence.....so I would choose A.
I may be wrong, there is still a tie between A and B
Hrishi

"As you sow, so shall you reap"
Top
User avatar
Community Manager
Posts: 1537
Joined: Mon Aug 10, 2009 6:10 pm
Thanked: 653 times
Followed by:252 members

by papgust » Sat Dec 26, 2009 4:56 am
But A has a bad comparison. "..caused as much resentment overseas as now"
Top
User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 407
Joined: Sun Nov 29, 2009 1:20 am
Location: India
Thanked: 20 times
Followed by:1 members

by hrishi19884 » Sat Dec 26, 2009 5:26 am
papgust wrote:But A has a bad comparison. "..caused as much resentment overseas as now"
Yeah man... that too looks to be true.....I am really confused now between A and B. May be Ron or Stuart can help us
Hrishi

"As you sow, so shall you reap"
Top
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 2
Joined: Tue Nov 10, 2009 2:27 pm

by jackie86 » Mon Dec 28, 2009 12:13 pm
I don't think the comparison in A is correct. I will have to go with B.
Top
User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 3225
Joined: Tue Jan 08, 2008 2:40 pm
Location: Toronto
Thanked: 1710 times
Followed by:614 members
GMAT Score:800

by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Wed Dec 30, 2009 11:10 pm
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).
Image

Stuart Kovinsky | Kaplan GMAT Faculty | Toronto

Kaplan Exclusive: The Official Test Day Experience | Ready to Take a Free Practice Test? | Kaplan/Beat the GMAT Member Discount
BTG100 for $100 off a full course
Top
User avatar
Community Manager
Posts: 1537
Joined: Mon Aug 10, 2009 6:10 pm
Thanked: 653 times
Followed by:252 members

by papgust » Wed Dec 30, 2009 11:28 pm
Thanks Stuart for your thoughts! The question is from a private coaching center in india.

The material was passed on by my friend. I would better stay away from that material from now on :)
Top
Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts
Posts: 6
Joined: Thu Aug 06, 2009 10:42 pm
Location: San Francisco, USA

by ramesk_krish » Thu Dec 31, 2009 12:10 am
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
Top
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 1302
Joined: Mon Oct 19, 2009 2:13 pm
Location: Toronto
Thanked: 539 times
Followed by:164 members
GMAT Score:800

by Testluv » Thu Dec 31, 2009 12:57 am
ramesk_krish wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
We use "had" when describing an event that is no longer occuring, an event that occured before some other event in the past. (This is called the "past perfect tense"). For example: "The governor's approval ratings HAD been high until the corruption scandal". Here, the governor's high approval ratings is the event that occured before some other event (corruption scandal) in the past.

In contrast, we use "has" when talking about any unspecified time in the past. (This is called the "present perfect tense"). Here, the speaker's intended meaning is that at no time in the past has BPO caused as much resentment as it is now. Thus, we need "has" and not "had".
Kaplan Teacher in Toronto
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 379
Joined: Wed Jun 03, 2009 3:05 am
Thanked: 19 times
Followed by:1 members
GMAT Score:690

by sreak1089 » Thu Dec 31, 2009 4:52 am
Hi Testluv,

If I understand correctly, "had" is past perfect tense which needs to be used when we need to emphasize an action that has occured earlier with reference to another action in the past right?
Testluv wrote:
ramesk_krish wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
We use "had" when describing an event that is no longer occuring, an event that occured before some other event in the past. (This is called the "past perfect tense"). For example: "The governor's approval ratings HAD been high until the corruption scandal". Here, the governor's high approval ratings is the event that occured before some other event (corruption scandal) in the past.

In contrast, we use "has" when talking about any unspecified time in the past. (This is called the "present perfect tense"). Here, the speaker's intended meaning is that at no time in the past has BPO caused as much resentment as it is now. Thus, we need "has" and not "had".
Top
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 379
Joined: Wed Jun 03, 2009 3:05 am
Thanked: 19 times
Followed by:1 members
GMAT Score:690

by sreak1089 » Thu Dec 31, 2009 4:55 am
Let us say if Original sentence had A and the option B did not have "so" then which of these two would be considered a better sentence?
Top
Legendary Member
Posts: 727
Joined: Sun Jun 08, 2008 9:32 pm
Thanked: 8 times
Followed by:1 members

by umaa » Thu Dec 31, 2009 7:04 am
sreak1089 wrote:Hi Testluv,

If I understand correctly, "had" is past perfect tense which needs to be used when we need to emphasize an action that has occured earlier with reference to another action in the past right?
Testluv wrote:
ramesk_krish wrote:
Stuart Kovinsky wrote:
papgust wrote:Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now

A. Never before had the BPO sector caused as much resentment overseas as now
B. The BPO sector has never caused as much resentment overseas as it is doing so now
C. Never before this did the BPO sector cause so much controversy as now
D. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas than at present
E. The BPO sector did not cause as much controversy overseas as it is doing now

Sorry guys, i don't have the OA. But my guess is B. Please explain your thoughts.
What's the source? Please always include that information, so we know how seriously to take the question.

In my mind, there is no good answer to this question; it's not just a case of style, there are grammatical errors or changes of meaning in every choice.

The orginal needs to read "Never before has the BPO sector....", not "had".

In B, "as it is doing so now" is horrible - the word "so" should not be there.

In C, "never before this" is redundant to "as now" (and "this" is a pronoun without any referent).

In D, we have "as much... than", which will never be accredited on the GMAT.

In E, we change the meaning of the sentence by removing "never" and not replacing it with a similar sentiment. Further, E just doesn't make sense - there's no context and GMAT sentences should be self-contained (i.e. you don't need any other information for the sentence to make sense).


Stuart I understand that there is no correct anser to this question. But I would like to understand why A cannot be
Never before had the BPO sector
I know I am missing something here and would like to get it clarified.
We use "had" when describing an event that is no longer occuring, an event that occured before some other event in the past. (This is called the "past perfect tense"). For example: "The governor's approval ratings HAD been high until the corruption scandal". Here, the governor's high approval ratings is the event that occured before some other event (corruption scandal) in the past.

In contrast, we use "has" when talking about any unspecified time in the past. (This is called the "present perfect tense"). Here, the speaker's intended meaning is that at no time in the past has BPO caused as much resentment as it is now. Thus, we need "has" and not "had".
Answer choice A already has BEFORE. When we have "before" in a sentence, we don't need to use HAD for past action.

Source: MGMAT SC
What we think, we become
Top
User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 3225
Joined: Tue Jan 08, 2008 2:40 pm
Location: Toronto
Thanked: 1710 times
Followed by:614 members
GMAT Score:800

by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Thu Dec 31, 2009 1:59 pm
umaa wrote:
Answer choice A already has BEFORE. When we have "before" in a sentence, we don't need to use HAD for past action.

Source: MGMAT SC
Seriously, no need to quote 100 lines of text that are irrelevant to the point you're making!

This rule is not necessarily true, i.e. it is not really a grammar rule at all. Here's a counterexample:

Although the company had already declared bankruptcy before it bought the equipment, it was still given 30 days to pay.
Image

Stuart Kovinsky | Kaplan GMAT Faculty | Toronto

Kaplan Exclusive: The Official Test Day Experience | Ready to Take a Free Practice Test? | Kaplan/Beat the GMAT Member Discount
BTG100 for $100 off a full course
Top
Post new topic Locked
• Page 1 of 1