I think what the question is saying is u get the bonus amount on the specified % for that bracket as (1000-0,3000-1000 etc)............. and the total will be--
0.5% of1000 + 1% of 2000+ 1.5 %of 3000 +2% of 4000
which equals = 150
hope this helps
BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course
Redeem
Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand
Scott Woodbury-Stewart’s private virtual classroom — 400 hours of master-class video lessons for the GMAT Focus Edition.
- 715+ score guarantee — highest in the industry (99th percentile)
- 52 chapters · 1,500+ lessons · 4,000+ practice questions
- 400 hours of video · 1,500+ instructor-led HD smartboard lessons
- 300,000+ students accepted to Harvard, Stanford, Wharton, Booth & Sloan & more
- 24/7 live support + weekly Zoom office hours with GMAT instructors
- TTP AI Assist — 24/7 AI-powered virtual tutor for instant help
- 1,200+ flashcards + AI-powered study assistant & daily calendar
- OnDemand, LiveTeach & GMAT Bootcamp formats available
- Also: GRE, SAT Math & Executive Assessment courses
- MBA Admissions Consulting now available
- 🏆 2025 EdTech Breakthrough Award: Test Prep Solution Provider of the Year
- 200,000+ students served
- 5-day free trial — $0 to start, no auto-billing, cancel anytime
★★★★★
5.0
(559 reviews)
130-pt guarantee
$0 to start
then $127/mo
tricky gmat prep problem 2
Source: Beat The GMAT — Problem Solving |
Ya,
As with the question ...
First 1000$ ----> .5 percent of it is --->5 $
Second range is 1000-3000 ( as the bonus for 1st 1000 is already paid he wont be getting the bonus again)--- 2000-->1% of it is 20$
same logic applies here as well.. range for 3000-6000 he gets bonus pn;y for this range not the ones which is already added... so now 1.5 % of 3000 is 45 $
and so forth.... 6000-10000 --> 2% of 4000 which is 80$
so now annually he will get
5+20+45+80=150$
Hope it helps
Vishu
As with the question ...
First 1000$ ----> .5 percent of it is --->5 $
Second range is 1000-3000 ( as the bonus for 1st 1000 is already paid he wont be getting the bonus again)--- 2000-->1% of it is 20$
same logic applies here as well.. range for 3000-6000 he gets bonus pn;y for this range not the ones which is already added... so now 1.5 % of 3000 is 45 $
and so forth.... 6000-10000 --> 2% of 4000 which is 80$
so now annually he will get
5+20+45+80=150$
Hope it helps
Vishu
















