karmayogi wrote:I also selected A.

"one of the potential investors" is singular, so should be followed by "is". Ruled out D and E. In option B, "They" doesn't have any plural noun to the refer-back. In addition, 'offer to buy' is better than 'offer for buying', so ruled B too. Ruled out C also, as in C 'them' doesn't have any plural noun to refer-back.

I am still skeptic about C being the OA.

Hi, can you please explain why they or them cannot refer to potential investors. Is it because we cannot consider potential advisores alsone and we have to take one of potential investors.

Please advice.

TBombadill wrote:The correct answers is A... (not C) in the gmatprep

Hi, can anyone explain this? Which one is right?


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I suppose you answered your own question - if GMAC used A on the test, then the answer MUST be A

OA: A

Here is how I get it.

1. not one of the ... IS => Elim D & E
2. an offer to buy vs. an offer for buying => Elim B
3. is signed vs. be signed => Elim C

Answer: A

Note: if you are confused on why 'if the deal were' is correct in answer choice A, it's because it's in the 'Hypothetical subjunctive mood' form.
example: If he WERE in charge, he would help us!

is it correct "the deal were not to be concluded."?
the deal is singular, isn't it?

The problem is that answer C is in Ebonics! e.g. He be doin this, she be doin that-. That be signed just sounds unnatural. I dont know what explanation I can give except for that.(sorry)- Remember when you dont have a clue just trust your ear---that works most of the time for me. After thinking about it I realise that 'be' is the wrong tense--- 'is' is the correct tense in this case----you see 'is' and 'be' are the same verb in different tenses---Am I right about this?--feedback will be welcome---I know answer A is right but I dont know why because I dont study English---- I just speak it well. However, I dont want to mislead anyone.