It's a formula based problem.
"The probability of getting exactly k results out of n flips is: nCk/2^n"
6C3/2^6 = 20/2^6 = 5/2^4
Answer option "E"
Coin Probability
This topic has expert replies
Source: Beat The GMAT — Problem Solving |
-
mathbyvemuri
- Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
- Posts: 142
- Joined: Thu Apr 26, 2012 3:24 am
- Location: India
- Thanked: 28 times
RaviSankar Vemuri
Join my Google Group on Math:
https://groups.google.com/group/mathbyvemuri
My Blog on Math:
https://mathbyvemuri.blocked/
Some concepts for GMAT:
https://mathbyvemuri.blogspot.in/2012/05 ... -data.html
https://mathbyvemuri.blogspot.in/2012/05 ... dates.html
https://mathbyvemuri.blogspot.in/2012/05 ... es-of.html
Join my Google Group on Math:
https://groups.google.com/group/mathbyvemuri
My Blog on Math:
https://mathbyvemuri.blocked/
Some concepts for GMAT:
https://mathbyvemuri.blogspot.in/2012/05 ... -data.html
https://mathbyvemuri.blogspot.in/2012/05 ... dates.html
https://mathbyvemuri.blogspot.in/2012/05 ... es-of.html
- Bill@VeritasPrep
- GMAT Instructor
- Posts: 1248
- Joined: Thu Mar 29, 2012 2:57 pm
- Location: Everywhere
- Thanked: 503 times
- Followed by:192 members
- GMAT Score:780
If we're looking for exactly 3 heads (and therefore exactly 3 tails), we can use our permutation with repeating elements formula: 6!/(3!3!) = 20. For any binomial event, the total number of possibilities is equal to 2^n where n is the number of events. 2^6=64, so the probability of exactly 3 heads is 20/64, or 5/16, which is 5/2^4.
Join Veritas Prep's 2010 Instructor of the Year, Matt Douglas for GMATT Mondays
Visit the Veritas Prep Blog
Try the FREE Veritas Prep Practice Test
Visit the Veritas Prep Blog
Try the FREE Veritas Prep Practice Test












