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k – m – p odd?

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by crackgmat007 » Wed May 13, 2009 8:58 pm
3. If k, m, and p are integers, is k – m – p odd?
(1) k and m are even and p is odd.
(2) k, m, and p are consecutive integers.

The answer seems to be A, but why is statement 2 not sufficient?
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Source: — Data Sufficiency |
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by scoobydooby » Wed May 13, 2009 11:38 pm
1) k and m are even and p is odd
k-m-p=>E-E-O=>E-O=>O
sufficient

2) k, m, and p are consecutive integers
k, m and p can be E, O, E or O, E, O

if E, O, E, k-m-p=>E-O-E=>E-O=O
if O, E, O, k-m-p=>O-O-E=>E-E>E
sometimes even, sometimes odd
not sufficient

hence, A
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by sanju09 » Thu May 14, 2009 3:50 am
If we take any three consecutive integers, either two are even and one is odd, or one is even and two are odd; the two possibilities give contradicting results in our case, if statement (2) alone is considered, hence (2) is insufficient, and (1) is doubtlessly sufficient for an answer. My [spoiler]A[/spoiler].
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by aj5105 » Thu May 14, 2009 4:57 am
(A)
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by crackgmat007 » Thu May 14, 2009 8:02 pm
thanks all
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by hjafferi » Wed Sep 05, 2012 5:31 am
IMO A

Statement 1: even - even - odd is odd. Hence statement 1 is sufficient
Statement 2: what if two integers are odd try putting in 5,6 and 7 result would be even.

Also I try to put in -1,0,1 to check if the rule holds. In this case it does not. Hence statement 2 is insufficient
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by Anurag@Gurome » Wed Sep 05, 2012 8:31 pm
crackgmat007 wrote:3. If k, m, and p are integers, is k � m � p odd?
(1) k and m are even and p is odd.
(2) k, m, and p are consecutive integers.

The answer seems to be A, but why is statement 2 not sufficient?
k - m - p = k - (m + p)

(1) m is even and p is odd.
So m + p is odd.
k is even.
So k - (m + p) is odd; SUFFICIENT.

(2) Since k, m and p are consecutive integers, let m = k + 1 and p = k + 2.
So m + p is 2k + 3.
k - (m + p) is k - (2k + 3) = -k - 3.
So the value of k - (m + p) depends on whether k is even or odd; NOT sufficient.

The correct answer is A.
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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Thu Sep 06, 2012 8:22 am
crackgmat007 wrote:3. If k, m, and p are integers, is k - m - p odd?
(1) k and m are even and p is odd.
(2) k, m, and p are consecutive integers.

The answer seems to be A, but why is statement 2 not sufficient?
Target question: Is k - m - p odd?

To show why statement 2 is not sufficient, we can plug in some values for k, m and p that satisfy the given condition that k, m, and p are consecutive integers. Here are 2 possible cases:
case a: k=2, m=3, p=4, in which case k-m-p= -5 (so k-m-p is odd)
case b: k=1, m=2, p=3, in which case k-m-p= -4 (so k-m-p is not odd)
Since we get conflicting answers to the target question, statement 2 is NOT SUFFICIENT.

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by Fooxdype » Wed Sep 19, 2012 5:29 am
I suggest you to visit a site on which there is a lot of information on this question.
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by TRiXcare » Mon Nov 12, 2012 2:49 am
Analogues are available?

:)
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by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Mon Nov 12, 2012 6:55 am
TRiXcare wrote:Analogues are available?

:)
I'm not sure about external sites, but you can use BTG's tagging feature to examine tons of other GMAT questions that test Integer Properties: https://www.beatthegmat.com/forums/tags/ ... roperties

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