The Bold part shown above uses the same subject John for the verb gone and bought, that's why we repeated (Jody had)Stacey Koprince wrote:I received a PM asking me to comment.
Yes, as some posters have said, past perfect is used when the two past events are separated in time. Generally speaking, the "past perfect" event has to occur in the past relative to a "simple past" event or point in time. The later-in-time item can be literally a point in time, such as a date, or it can be an event that is referred to via the simple past tense.
In the original two example sentences, we have a compound verb:
Jody went... and (Jody) bought...
or
Jody had gone and (Jody had) bought...
Notice that I repeated the "had" in the second sentence. With this structure, the implication is that both Jody and had are repeated before the second verb (bought)... so this one's not correct simply because it's using only past perfect, with no "later in time in the past" event or point in time as a reference point.
If we want to debate whether the "had" should be repeated... at the very least, it's ambiguous as to whether the intent is "Jody bought" or "Jody had bought" - and ambiguity makes for a bad sentence.
You could say:
Jody had already gone to the market when she bought the shoes. Meaning: sometime earlier (earlier the same day? The day before? I don't know), Jody went to the market. After that (but still in the past), she bought some shoes.
If you are trying to say that Jody bought the shoes at the market, then you'd more logically say something like:
Jody went to the market to buy shoes. (though this is ambiguous as to whether she did buy the shoes)
or
Jody bought shoes at the market.
Following the same explanation, what's the reason of eliminating E for the question Q41 discussed here:
https://www.beatthegmat.com/3-q-s-t21877.html
(Here, we do have a different subject for the 2 verbs)
I am just pasting the question here:
In 1713, Alexander Pope began his translation of the Iliad, a work that, taking him seven years until completion, and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced the greatest translation in any language.
A. his translation of the Iliad, a work that, taking him seven years until completion, and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced
B. his translation of the Iliad, a work that took him seven years to complete and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced
C. his translation of the Iliad, a work that had taken seven years to complete and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced it as
D. translating the Iliad, a work that took seven years until completion and that literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced it as
E. translating the Iliad, a work that had taken seven years to complete and literary critic Samuel Johnson, Pope’s contemporary, pronounced it
Pls explain
