Once again i am finding contradictory rules... :shock: and is really confusing
My Kaplan book says that "none" and " any" are always singular.
eg. "None of my friends has been able..."
Another book says that "none" and " any" are plural or sigular depending on the noun that flollows it.
eg. "None of the money is..." , "None of you are....", " None of the cakes are..."
So...what is the correct rule?
Thanks !
My Kaplan book says that "none" and " any" are always singular.
eg. "None of my friends has been able..."
Another book says that "none" and " any" are plural or sigular depending on the noun that flollows it.
eg. "None of the money is..." , "None of you are....", " None of the cakes are..."
So...what is the correct rule?
Thanks !
