BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

OG 13 : Q 36

This topic has expert replies
Post new topic Locked
Previous Topic Next Topic
User avatar
Junior | Next Rank: 30 Posts
Posts: 17
Joined: Sat Apr 05, 2014 10:09 am
Thanked: 1 times

OG 13 : Q 36

by sinsofgmat » Thu Apr 10, 2014 10:41 am
36. Along with the drop in producer prices announced
yesterday, the strong retail sales figures released
today seem like it is indicative that the economy,
although growing slowly, is not nearing a recession.
(A) like it is indicative that
(B) as if to indicate
(C) to indicate that
(D) indicative of
(E) like an indication of

I am not satisfied with OG 13 explanation.


A. "It" doesn't appear to be pronoun referring to retail sales but a placeholder
B. What are the rules for using seem as if to
D. Indicative of is only followed by "economy" - noun where is the cluase

Can experts please help to crack each of the option
Top
Source: — Sentence Correction |

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
Elite Legendary Member
Posts: 10392
Joined: Sun Jun 23, 2013 6:38 pm
Location: Palo Alto, CA
Thanked: 2867 times
Followed by:511 members
GMAT Score:800

by [email protected] » Thu Apr 10, 2014 7:24 pm
Hi sinsofgmat,

Beyond the standard grammar rules that the GMAT will test you on (verbs, pronouns, parallelism, etc.), the GMAT will also test you on a variety of grammar rules involving idioms, style and proper usage. Some of the wrong answers will be written in a way that is similar to how people talk (it's commonly referred to as "conversational language", but it's almost never grammatically correct), so you have to be very careful about knowing the rules and relying on those rules to dictate which answer you choose.

Here, the word "seem" (which appears right before the underlined portion of the sentence) triggers a phrase that must come next.

The most common phrase that I can think of that uses the word "seem" is "seem to be...." (or "seems to be"); you'll notice that the word "seem" is followed by an infinitive (in this example, it's "...to be"). This is a grammar rule, so we have to follow it. The only answer that follows this rule is the correct one.

Final Answer: C

While I imagine the OG explanation probably went into some detail about the various reasons why the wrong answers were wrong, the short answer is that they don't use an infinitive, so they're incorrect.

GMAT assassins aren't born, they're made,
Rich
Contact Rich at [email protected]
Image
Top
Legendary Member
Posts: 774
Joined: Mon Jan 23, 2012 4:32 am
Thanked: 46 times
Followed by:14 members

by aditya8062 » Fri Apr 11, 2014 4:02 am
"It" doesn't appear to be pronoun referring to retail sales but a placeholder
is this OG line?
firstly pronoun stands for the noun in the sentence . "retail sales" is not a noun but an adjective.
the noun in the sentence is "figures" .also "it" cannot refer to plural "figures" .hence its wrong !!
does it make sense
Top
Post new topic Locked
• Page 1 of 1