I've searched for this problem and found a previous thread, but the answers didn't really help me out, see here: https://www.beatthegmat.com/if-x-not-equ ... tml#264953
The question is:
Given: (x+1/x -1)^2
If x ≠0 and x ≠1, and if x is replaced by 1/x everywhere in the expression above, then the resulting expression
is equivalent to
Stole this

[spoiler]A (x+1/x-1)^2[/spoiler]
I understand most of the simplification, but what I don't understand is when we introduce an "X" out of no where to eliminate the compound fractions. I must have missed this in grade school, but can anyone explain where it comes from?
[ ((1/x)+1) / ((1/x)-1)]^2 --> [ (x*((1/x)+1)) / (x*((1/x)-1) ] ^2 ==> ( 1+x / 1-x) ^2
The question is:
Given: (x+1/x -1)^2
If x ≠0 and x ≠1, and if x is replaced by 1/x everywhere in the expression above, then the resulting expression
is equivalent to
Stole this

[spoiler]A (x+1/x-1)^2[/spoiler]
I understand most of the simplification, but what I don't understand is when we introduce an "X" out of no where to eliminate the compound fractions. I must have missed this in grade school, but can anyone explain where it comes from?
[ ((1/x)+1) / ((1/x)-1)]^2 --> [ (x*((1/x)+1)) / (x*((1/x)-1) ] ^2 ==> ( 1+x / 1-x) ^2













