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Classics

by Vemuri » Sun Mar 01, 2009 5:31 pm
Any literate person who is not lazy can read the classics. Since few literate persons have read the classics, it is clear that most literate persons are lazy.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above is based?

A. Only literate persons can understand the classics.
B. Any literate person should read the classics.
C. Any literate person who is lazy has no chance of reading the classics.
D. Any literate person who will not read the classics is lazy.
E. Any literate person who can read the classics will choose to do so.
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by cramya » Sun Mar 01, 2009 5:44 pm
I would go with D.

This fits the argument as a 2nd premise(unstated premise->assumption).

Any literate person who is not lazy can read the classics. Any literate person who will not read the classics is lazy.Since few literate persons have read the classics, it is clear that most literate persons are lazy.

Conclusion: It is clear that most literate persons are lazy
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by cramya » Sun Mar 01, 2009 5:45 pm
C seems to be a head scratcher but I will stick with D
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by delhiboy1979 » Mon Mar 02, 2009 2:58 am
Close between C and D, I may be worng here but I will go for C. If the question asked for a conclusion I would have gone for D.

But as I said not too sure.
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by bmlaud » Mon Mar 02, 2009 8:15 am
IMO D,

say 10 people read classics, 90 people did not read any classics

conclusion: 90 people are Lazy

conclusion would be valid only when people who didn't read classics are called Lazy.
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by Nailya » Mon Mar 02, 2009 12:39 pm
Guys, what do you think about E?

What if these literate just do not choose to read classic? They won't be lazy then. So this assumption is necessary in order to draw a conclusion that they are lazy.
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by abhi75 » Mon Mar 02, 2009 1:39 pm
I will also go with D.

The word "Any" gives away for 1 and 2.

For C. Any literate person who is lazy has no chance of reading the classics -> If he had no chance of reading the classic then we cannot conclude he is lazy.

Cancel C.

Again the word "any" gives away for E.

Therefore I choose D. Please correct me guys if my reasoning is wrong.

-a
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by vvnaveen » Tue Mar 03, 2009 6:09 am
Will go for "E"
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by lax » Tue Mar 03, 2009 9:15 am
i believe C and D are different ways to conclude the argument. I would say E. can we know the OA please?
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by quocbao » Tue Mar 03, 2009 9:39 am
IMO

I will go D too.

E doesn't mean anything relate to lazy. C is just eye-catching. B & A is not related.
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by welcome » Tue Mar 03, 2009 10:47 am
IMO it id D. Please let us know OA.
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by dendude » Tue Mar 03, 2009 12:51 pm
I started out typing this post in agreement with choice D.
But as I re-read the choices, E started making sense. :?

A literate person who is not lazy, can read a classic [meaning that, they can or can decide not to as well] - I
Opt. E says if a literate person can read the classic he will choose to do so - II

Put I and II together, a literate person, who is not lazy will definitely read a classic.
So if the count is few, given the fact that it's only for literate people, it would most likely mean that most literate people are lazy.
IMO Opt. D would have fit if the argument did not have the word can.

I could be wrong with my reasoning. OA please.
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by beater » Tue Mar 10, 2009 1:05 pm
What is the OA?
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by vanessa.m » Sat May 14, 2016 2:42 am
another vote for D. what's OA?
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