Any form of the verb to be requires a subject pronoun such as I, he, she, they, we:
The king was I.
The king is he.
The above sentences might sound strange and feel awkward, but they are grammatically correct. The verb to be expresses a state of being. To be is like an equals sign. The order of the elements can be reversed:
I was the king. (So the king was I.)
He is the king. (So the king is he.)
We can't say:
Me was the king.
So it's incorrect to say:
The king was me. Eliminate B and C.
Another issue is he vs. him. Who could have told them? No one could have told them. He or him is the object of the word but, so we need to say but him, just as we would say no one except him. Eliminate D.
In E, had told them is the wrong tense. Eliminate E.
The correct answer is A.
Please note: case (he vs. him, I vs. me) typically is not tested on the GMAT.
No one but him could have told them that the king was I.
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crackinggmat
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Dare 2 .... im eagerly waiting to see the official explanation for this queastion.....
i still do not agree with the oa....
i still do not agree with the oa....
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shweta.kalra
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HI MITCH,
HAD IT BEEN GIVEN
1 NO ONE AND I COULD HAV TOLD THEM THAT THE KING WAS I.
2 NO ONE OTHER THAN HIM COULD HAVE TOLD THEM THAT THE KING WAS I.
ARE BOTH SENTENCES CORRECT?
THANKS.
HAD IT BEEN GIVEN
1 NO ONE AND I COULD HAV TOLD THEM THAT THE KING WAS I.
2 NO ONE OTHER THAN HIM COULD HAVE TOLD THEM THAT THE KING WAS I.
ARE BOTH SENTENCES CORRECT?
THANKS.
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#2 is correct. Please note that the words but and than can perform different functions:shweta.kalra wrote:HI MITCH,
HAD IT BEEN GIVEN
1 NO ONE AND I COULD HAV TOLD THEM THAT THE KING WAS I.
2 NO ONE OTHER THAN HIM COULD HAVE TOLD THEM THAT THE KING WAS I.
ARE BOTH SENTENCES CORRECT?
THANKS.
Mary likes chocolate, but I prefer vanilla. (In this sentence, but is a conjunction joining two clauses. The pronoun I is the subject of the second clause.)
No one but me prefers vanilla. (In this sentence but is a preposition. The pronoun me is the object of the preposition but.)
Mary likes chocolate more than I. (Traditionalists will say that the word than is being used to compare the way Mary likes chocolate with the way I like chocolate, so the pronoun I is correct. Other grammarians think that it's ok to say Mary likes chocolate more than me, claiming that me is the object of the preposition than. Since there is debate, the issue will not be tested on the GMAT. In fact, issues of case typically are not tested on the GMAT.)
No one other than me likes vanilla. (Here there is no debate. The pronoun me is the object of the preposition than.)
Sentence #1 makes no sense. It's impossible that no one and I could have told them.
Last edited by GMATGuruNY on Wed Jul 28, 2010 8:54 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.
As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
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For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
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shweta.kalra
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