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by ofirzg » Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:07 am
Hey

I don't get Kaplan's explanation in the attached question. Why is the term "within 20 years" implying the use of past perfect?
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by aspirant2011 » Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:18 am
its implying past perfect because consider the following situation-

here with in 20 years means that something happened before the completion of 20 years therefore, past perfect has been used
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by ofirzg » Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:23 am
Got it, thanks aspirant!
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