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ofirzg: Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts; Posts: 5; Joined: Thu Nov 04, 2010 1:24 pm

by ofirzg » Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:07 am

Hey

I don't get Kaplan's explanation in the attached question. Why is the term "within 20 years" implying the use of past perfect?

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Source: Beat The GMAT — Sentence Correction | Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:07 am

aspirant2011: Legendary Member; Posts: 1574; Joined: Fri Jan 28, 2011 2:52 amFollowed by: 13 members; Thanked: 88 times

by aspirant2011 » Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:18 am

its implying past perfect because consider the following situation-

here with in 20 years means that something happened before the completion of 20 years therefore, past perfect has been used

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ofirzg: Newbie | Next Rank: 10 Posts; Posts: 5; Joined: Thu Nov 04, 2010 1:24 pm

by ofirzg » Fri Aug 12, 2011 9:23 am

Got it, thanks aspirant!

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