BREAKING: Target Test Prep releases Brand New 2026 On Demand GMAT prep course

Redeem

Target Test Prep · GMAT

Choose how you want to prepare

Learn live with an expert or move at your own pace. Every option includes the complete TTP study system.

★★★★★5.0559 reviews
GMATLiveTeach Starts Oct 17
Chris Peckover, Target Test Prep GMAT expert
LIVE ONLINE CLASSES

Get Ready for GMAT Test Day Faster with Live Online Classes

with Chris Peckover, 100th-Percentile GMAT Scorer

Oct 17 · Chris Peckover
Sat · 11:00 AM to 2:00 PM ET
Oct 20 · Chris Peckover
Tue, Thu · 8:00 to 10:00 PM ET
Oct 25 · Josh Braslow
Sun · 1:00 to 4:00 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes + 6 months of TTP OnDemand
  • Attend the first class for free
  • Every class is recorded, so you never fall behind
View classes & enroll
Limited seats availableTarget Test Prep
EALiveTeachOnDemand 5 seats left Start anytime
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Target Test Prep EA OnDemand

Self-paced EA prep. Study on your schedule.

Logan Thompson
EXECUTIVE ASSESSMENT

Sep 6 to Dec 6, 2026

with Logan Thompson

165+ EA score guarantee
$05-day trial no automatic billing
Schedule
Sun · 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM ET
Included
40 hours of live online classes plus six months of access to the complete TTP EA OnDemand course.
  • 165+ EA Score Guarantee
  • 4,100+ Quant, Verbal, and Integrated Reasoning practice questions
  • 400+ hours of in-depth video lessons
  • 3,000+ step-by-step video solutions
View EA class & enroll Start free 5-day trial
Limited cohort · enrollment openTrial includes full course accessTarget Test Prep
GMATOnDemand Start anytime
SELF-PACED MASTERCLASS

Target Test Prep GMAT OnDemand

Complete access from day one. Study on your schedule.

715+ score guarantee
$0to start then $127/mo
  • Personalized study plan and analytics
  • Thousands of lessons and practice questions

Compare the format, schedule, and included access before enrolling. Prices and seat counts shown reflect the supplied offer details.

Is 1/(a - b) < b - a ?

Expert replies
by massi2884 » Wed Apr 18, 2012 10:50 am
Is 1/(a - b) < b - a ?

(1) a < b
(2) 1 < |a - b|

Can you please help me in the following step regarding statement 2?

If (a - b) is positive, then 1/(a - b) < b - a is equivalent to 1 < (b - a)(a - b).
But if (a - b) is negative, then you have to flip the inequality sign: 1/(a - b) < b - a becomes 1 > (b - a)(a - b)
So we only flip the inequality sign < with >, right?

However, why in the question https://www.beatthegmat.com/if-x-3-t110016.html#464257 , for the point 3), |x - 1| > 2 becomes x-1>2 or x-1<-2 (so we change the sign also of the term after the inequality sign) ?

Thanks.
Join the discussion
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

by aneesh.kg » Wed Apr 18, 2012 11:01 am
Yes, you just flip the inequality sign. What you did with (a - b) is absolutely correct.
But, you have to understand why we flip it.

Let's take this example:

3 > 2
If you multiply both sides with a positive number, say 2,
6 > 4
So, the inequality sign does not change.

But, if you multiply both sides with a negative number say -2,
we can't write
- 6 > - 4
The sign should flip and
- 6 < - 4 is correct.

So remember, (as you did) when you multiply both sides of an inequality with a positive number the sign does not flip. But when you multiply both sides by a negative number, the sign of inequality flips.

The case of |x-1| > 2 is concerned with understanding modulus and opening the modulus.
|x - 1| opens up as (x - 1) when (x - 1) > 0
so (x - 1) > 2 when x > 1
|x - 1| opens up as -(x - 1) when (x - 1) < 0
so -(x - 1) > 2 or (x - 1) < -2 when x < 1
Aneesh Bangia
GMAT Math Coach
[email protected]

GMATPad:
Facebook Page: https://www.facebook.com/GMATPad
Join the discussion

by GMATGuruNY » Wed Apr 18, 2012 3:52 pm
massi2884 wrote:Is 1/(a - b) < b - a ?

(1) a < b
(2) 1 < |a - b|
Statement 1: a < b
Thus, a-b<0, implying that b-a>0.
Is 1/(negative) < positive?
YES.
SUFFICIENT.

Statement 2: 1 < |a - b|
It's possible that a-b = 2, implying that b-a = -2.
Plugging a-b=2 and b-a=-2 into 1/(a-b) < b-a, we get:
1/2 < -2?
NO.

It's possible that a-b = -2, implying that b-a = 2.
Plugging a-b=-2 and b-a=2 into 1/(a-b) < b-a, we get:
1/-2 < 2?
YES.

Since in the first case the answer is NO but in the second case the answer is YES, INSUFFICIENT.

The correct answer is A.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3
Join the discussion

by sachindia » Sun Sep 02, 2012 4:59 am
Hi Mitch,
I found the insufficiency of 2 the following way. hope this is right

1< |a-b|

take x=a-b

=> x>1 or x<-1
since x cant be a distinct no, it is insufficient
Just hope the above reasoning is right..
Please correct me if I am wrong.
Regards,
Sach
Join the discussion

by gmat_for_life » Mon Apr 25, 2016 7:40 pm
Hello experts,

Can we write the original statement 1/(a-b)<b-a as (a-b)^2<-1?

Regards,
Amit
Join the discussion