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Lookingfor700GMAT
- Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts
- Posts: 39
- Joined: Mon Feb 08, 2010 12:41 pm
Is 1/p > r/r^2 + 2?
p=r
r>0
I chose A by itself but the answer is C. Is this because the inequality would not hold if both p and r =0?
p=r
r>0
I chose A by itself but the answer is C. Is this because the inequality would not hold if both p and r =0?

















