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Interpreting GMAT scores -- percentiles

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Interpreting GMAT scores -- percentiles

by Alpha800 » Mon Jul 20, 2009 8:56 pm
Total: 740 97%
Q 49 87%
V 41 92%
Someone recently posted this score. I thought I understood the GMAT scoring system, but the score above kind of blows my mind away. Q49 is only 87 percentile? And V41 is 92 percentile? This is not making much sense to me. The highest score has determined to be what, 51 or 53? I just can't see how Q49 is only 87 percentile. Can someone shed some light on this? If this has already been discussed, please provide the URL to that thread; I'd appreciate it.
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by aanderson04 » Mon Jul 20, 2009 9:15 pm
More people just perform better at the Quant section than they do on the Verbal. So, you move higher in percentile for every point in verbal that you get because the majority of people who take the test score higher in the math section than they do in the verbal.
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by Alpha800 » Mon Jul 20, 2009 9:20 pm
aanderson04 wrote:More people just perform better at the Quant section than they do on the Verbal. So, you move higher in percentile for every point in verbal that you get because the majority of people who take the test score higher in the math section than they do in the verbal.
Yes, that's my understanding as well, but look at the score. It does not reconcile with what you're saying--or my understanding. His score was V49 87% and Q41 92%. This person scored a score of 49 on Verbals but was classified at only 87 percentile? That doesn't reconcile with our understanding. Because most people don't do as well on the verbal, a score of 49 should be a very high percentile, but why is it only 87%? This is what's confusing me. And how does a Q41 attain a 92nd percentile ranking? Q41 doesn't seem like it should be in the 92nd percentile to me.
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by aanderson04 » Mon Jul 20, 2009 9:21 pm
I actually was told this by a admissions consultant from a business school I was looking into, so I'm sorry if this offends anyone because that is NOT the intent...

But the admissions counselor told me it is common that foreign test takers who are VERY bright in math do exceptionally well on the GMAT because their math scores pull their overall score up, but they struggle if they can't speak English. Therefore, those test takers who may be mathematically brilliant are weeded out from the competition due to their lack of understanding of the English language and potential to struggle in classes, although the Verbal section is not what *that particular institution* looks for in the GMAT score breakdown.
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by aanderson04 » Mon Jul 20, 2009 9:26 pm
Alpha800 wrote:
aanderson04 wrote:More people just perform better at the Quant section than they do on the Verbal. So, you move higher in percentile for every point in verbal that you get because the majority of people who take the test score higher in the math section than they do in the verbal.
Yes, that's my understanding as well, but look at the score. It does not reconcile with what you're saying--or my understanding. His score was V49 87% and Q41 92%. This person scored a score of 49 on Verbals but was classified at only 87 percentile? That doesn't reconcile with our understanding. Because most people don't do as well on the verbal, a score of 49 should be a very high percentile, but why is it only 87%? This is what's confusing me. And how does a Q41 attain a 92nd percentile ranking? Q41 doesn't seem like it should be in the 92nd percentile to me.
Your original Quote claims:
Total: 740 97%
Q 49 87%
V 41 92%

So the Quant score was 49 and 87th percentile and Verbal was 41 or 92%.
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by Alpha800 » Mon Jul 20, 2009 9:36 pm
aanderson04 wrote:
Alpha800 wrote:
aanderson04 wrote:More people just perform better at the Quant section than they do on the Verbal. So, you move higher in percentile for every point in verbal that you get because the majority of people who take the test score higher in the math section than they do in the verbal.
Yes, that's my understanding as well, but look at the score. It does not reconcile with what you're saying--or my understanding. His score was V49 87% and Q41 92%. This person scored a score of 49 on Verbals but was classified at only 87 percentile? That doesn't reconcile with our understanding. Because most people don't do as well on the verbal, a score of 49 should be a very high percentile, but why is it only 87%? This is what's confusing me. And how does a Q41 attain a 92nd percentile ranking? Q41 doesn't seem like it should be in the 92nd percentile to me.
Your original Quote claims:
Total: 740 97%
Q 49 87%
V 41 92%

So the Quant score was 49 and 87th percentile and Verbal was 41 or 92%.
Frack. You're right. I think I'm becoming dyslexic. I could have sworn I interpreted the original post where I saw the score as V49 and Q41, but in my initial post in this thread, I copied & pasted the info from that original post so I know the original score I posted was correct.

Q49 87% makes sense. V41 92% makes sense. That reconciles.

Thanks for helping to clear up my dyslexia aanderson04.

If I make a stupid error like that on the real GMAT, it's going to cost me! :-(
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