CR_Advertising

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CR_Advertising

by gunjan1208 » Tue Oct 04, 2011 5:32 am
The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who
advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service
than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore, if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one
against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if
the state retains its current restrictions.
If the statements in the passage are true, which of the following must be true?
A. Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they do not have to specify fee
arrangements in the advertisements.
B. More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal service.
C. If the restriction against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will
advertise their services.
D. If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also
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charge less than they currently charge for those services.
E. If the only restrictions on the advertising of legal services were those that apply to every type of advertising,
most lawyers would advertise their services.

Source: OG10
OA:C

My question is why not A
Source: — Critical Reasoning |

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by DevitaN » Tue Oct 04, 2011 6:04 am
I had this down to A and C as well. I broke the tie by this logic:

1st sentence: Fewer restrictions on advertising -> More lawyers advertising their services (Always true)

C. If a particular restriction is lifted (1 fewer restriction) -> More lawyers will advertise.

C pretty much mirrors the first sentence and thus C MUST be true.

The issue with Ais that although the lawyers usually charge less, there is a chance that all the lawyers will decide to charge less and none charge more, thus this answer choice can be true but it can also be false. We need something that must always be true.

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by 1947 » Tue Oct 04, 2011 7:10 am
gunjan1208 wrote:The fewer restrictions there are on the advertising of legal services, the more lawyers there are who
advertise their services, and the lawyers who advertise a specific service usually charge less for that service
than lawyers who do not advertise. Therefore, if the state removes any of its current restrictions, such as the one
against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements, overall consumer legal costs will be lower than if
the state retains its current restrictions.
If the statements in the passage are true, which of the following must be true?
A. Some lawyers who now advertise will charge more for specific services if they do not have to specify fee
arrangements in the advertisements.
B. More consumers will use legal services if there are fewer restrictions on the advertising of legal service.
C. If the restriction against advertisements that do not specify fee arrangements is removed, more lawyers will
advertise their services.
D. If more lawyers advertise lower prices for specific services, some lawyers who do not advertise will also
5
charge less than they currently charge for those services.
E. If the only restrictions on the advertising of legal services were those that apply to every type of advertising,
most lawyers would advertise their services.

Source: OG10
OA:C

My question is why not A
Its a tough question to understand...

advertisement with fee charges X
advertisement with out fees charges less than X

No advertisement is definitely more than X

so this logic removes A...read this a few times closely to understood....took me quiet some time

so defintely answer is C...which is kind of restating what already in question.
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by gunjan1208 » Tue Oct 04, 2011 9:12 pm
Thank you guys.

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by catfreak » Wed Oct 05, 2011 11:15 am
Thanks for explanation.