Hello,
The first time I took the GMAT I got a 660. I got 50 / 95% on Math and 30/59 % on Verbal. On the practice tests before the GMAT, I was scoring 730-740 with a noticable different in Verbal. However, I was not taking the test in a strict 4 hour time period. I'd do the math at some point and maybe the verbal a day later. I account my 660 to the fact that I was not prepared for the total duration of the test and by the time I got to Verbal I could not think staight.
I was upset with my score so I bought some more books and practiced on my own taking the test with the Math/Verbal together. About 6 months later I retook it and got a 760. 50 / 95% on Math and 44 / 97% on Verbal.
So, the question is, for top 10 schools where you must report both scores in the application, should I explain why this happened?
And, should I put the above truth, or an excuse like that I was sick the first time?
Thanks,
Brian
The first time I took the GMAT I got a 660. I got 50 / 95% on Math and 30/59 % on Verbal. On the practice tests before the GMAT, I was scoring 730-740 with a noticable different in Verbal. However, I was not taking the test in a strict 4 hour time period. I'd do the math at some point and maybe the verbal a day later. I account my 660 to the fact that I was not prepared for the total duration of the test and by the time I got to Verbal I could not think staight.
I was upset with my score so I bought some more books and practiced on my own taking the test with the Math/Verbal together. About 6 months later I retook it and got a 760. 50 / 95% on Math and 44 / 97% on Verbal.
So, the question is, for top 10 schools where you must report both scores in the application, should I explain why this happened?
And, should I put the above truth, or an excuse like that I was sick the first time?
Thanks,
Brian
