GMAT PREP PS Problem

This topic has expert replies
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 435
Joined: Wed Nov 16, 2011 7:27 am
Thanked: 48 times
Followed by:16 members

GMAT PREP PS Problem

by alex.gellatly » Sat Apr 21, 2012 7:08 pm
If a coin has an equal probability of landing heads up or tails up each time it is flipped, what is the probability that the coin will land heads up exactly twice in 3 consecutive flips?

(A) 0.125
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.375
(D) 0.50
(E) 0.666

Thanks
Source: — Problem Solving |

Legendary Member
Posts: 581
Joined: Sun Apr 03, 2011 7:53 am
Thanked: 52 times
Followed by:5 members

by killer1387 » Sat Apr 21, 2012 7:23 pm
alex.gellatly wrote:If a coin has an equal probability of landing heads up or tails up each time it is flipped, what is the probability that the coin will land heads up exactly twice in 3 consecutive flips?

(A) 0.125
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.375
(D) 0.50
(E) 0.666

Thanks
3* (1/2)^3 = 3/8 = 0.375
Hence C

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 435
Joined: Wed Nov 16, 2011 7:27 am
Thanked: 48 times
Followed by:16 members

by alex.gellatly » Sat Apr 21, 2012 7:33 pm
killer1387 wrote:
alex.gellatly wrote:If a coin has an equal probability of landing heads up or tails up each time it is flipped, what is the probability that the coin will land heads up exactly twice in 3 consecutive flips?

(A) 0.125
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.375
(D) 0.50
(E) 0.666

Thanks
3* (1/2)^3 = 3/8 = 0.375
Hence C
Care to explain?

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 385
Joined: Mon Apr 16, 2012 8:40 am
Location: Pune, India
Thanked: 186 times
Followed by:29 members

by aneesh.kg » Sat Apr 21, 2012 7:42 pm
Head comes twice, and Tail comes one.
But the order of the Heads and the Tail is not mentioned.
You can have a head,head,tail OR head,tail,head OR tail,head,head.
Reqd. Probability = P(H,H,T) or P(H,T,H) or P(T,H,H)
= 0.5*0.5*0.5 + 0.5*0.5*0.5 + 0.5*0.5*0.5
= 3/8

But, the above way is lengthy when there are too many ARRANGEMENTS of the Heads and the Tails. The below is a better way:

Instead of writing all the cases for two heads and one tail, we can arrange 2Hs and 1T in 3!/2! ways and multiply (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) by the number of arrangements.

Therefore,
required probability = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(3!/2!)
= 3/8

Alternatively:
Probability = Favourable Events/Total no. of events
Total number of possibilities for 3 tosses = 2*2*2
Favourable events (are all the arrangements of 2Hs and 1T) = 3!/2!
therefore,
required probability = (3!/2!)/(2^3)
= 3/8

Practice Problem:
If a coin is tossed 5 times, what is the probability that:
(a) you get 3 Heads?
(b) you get atleast 4 Heads?
Aneesh Bangia
GMAT Math Coach
[email protected]

GMATPad:
Facebook Page: https://www.facebook.com/GMATPad

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 435
Joined: Wed Nov 16, 2011 7:27 am
Thanked: 48 times
Followed by:16 members

by alex.gellatly » Sun Apr 22, 2012 12:54 am
aneesh.kg wrote:Head comes twice, and Tail comes one.
But the order of the Heads and the Tail is not mentioned.
You can have a head,head,tail OR head,tail,head OR tail,head,head.
Reqd. Probability = P(H,H,T) or P(H,T,H) or P(T,H,H)
= 0.5*0.5*0.5 + 0.5*0.5*0.5 + 0.5*0.5*0.5
= 3/8

But, the above way is lengthy when there are too many ARRANGEMENTS of the Heads and the Tails. The below is a better way:

Instead of writing all the cases for two heads and one tail, we can arrange 2Hs and 1T in 3!/2! ways and multiply (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) by the number of arrangements.

Therefore,
required probability = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(3!/2!)
= 3/8

Alternatively:
Probability = Favourable Events/Total no. of events
Total number of possibilities for 3 tosses = 2*2*2
Favourable events (are all the arrangements of 2Hs and 1T) = 3!/2!
therefore,
required probability = (3!/2!)/(2^3)
= 3/8

Practice Problem:
If a coin is tossed 5 times, what is the probability that:
(a) you get 3 Heads?
(b) you get atleast 4 Heads?
Are the answers to your practice problems as follows:
A. 5 / 32
B. 4 / 32
Thanks

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 934
Joined: Tue Nov 09, 2010 5:16 am
Location: AAMCHI MUMBAI LOCAL
Thanked: 63 times
Followed by:14 members

by [email protected] » Sun Apr 22, 2012 4:54 am
This is a permutation question as the ordering is important. All the three ways mentioned are important in this question.

The practice problem's solution:

A] 9/32 as the order is not confirm, we shall have 3 possibilities as follows:

1. {H, H, H, T, T}

2. {T, T, H, H, H}

3. {T, H, H, H, T}

4. {T, H, T, H, H}

5. {T, H, H, T, H}

6. {H, T, H, H, T}

7. {H, T, T, H, H}

8. {H, H, T, T, H}

9. {H, T, H, T, H}


B] The answer is 3/16 . The probability of getting 4 heads at least is as follows:


1. {H, H, H, H, T}

2. {H, H, H, T, H}

3. {H, H, T, H, H}

4. {H, T, H, H, H}

5. {T, H, H, H, H}

6. {H, H, H, H, H}

In all 6 ways and all of them having a probability of 1/2 hence 6/32 = 3/16.


I really hope I am correct. As per the formula this is what it should be...
IT IS TIME TO BEAT THE GMAT

LEARNING, APPLICATION AND TIMING IS THE FACT OF GMAT AND LIFE AS WELL... KEEP PLAYING!!!

Whenever you feel that my post really helped you to learn something new, please press on the 'THANK' button.

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 385
Joined: Mon Apr 16, 2012 8:40 am
Location: Pune, India
Thanked: 186 times
Followed by:29 members

by aneesh.kg » Sun Apr 22, 2012 5:02 am
Alex: Both your answers are wrong. Read the explanation given before and try the problem again before reading the solution below.
Amit: You're are counting all the cases, which is tedious. That's why you made a mistake in the first part of the problem. Read the explanation given before and read the solution below.

P (3 Heads) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(5!/3!2!)
= 10/32 = 5/16

P (atleast 4 Heads) = P(4 Heads) + P(5 Heads)
= (1/32)^5 * (5!/4!) + (1/32)^5 * 1
= (5 + 1)/32
= 6/32
= 3/16
Aneesh Bangia
GMAT Math Coach
[email protected]

GMATPad:
Facebook Page: https://www.facebook.com/GMATPad