knight247 wrote:One Important principal u may wanna keep in mind.
Suppose a number A*B divided by a number x leaves a certain remainder, that remainder is equal to the product of remainders produced when A is divided by x and B is divided by x individually.
Variation....If A divided by x leaves a certain remainder 'm' and B divided by x leaves a certain remainder 'n', then when A*B is divided by x the remainder is the product of m*n
These principles aren't quite right. Say you have two numbers, and the remainder is 5 when you divide the first number by 7, and the remainder is 2 when you divide the second number by 7. If you multiply these two numbers, the remainder will not be 5*2 = 10 when you divide the product by 7, since 10 is too large - when you divide anything by 7, the remainder must be between 0 and 6 inclusive. Instead you need, as the final step, to take the remainder when you divide 10 by 7; the remainder is 3 when you divide this product by 7.
So in the question in the original post, we're dividing by q. We can easily get a 'yes' answer to the question, using both statements, by letting r and s be 0, say, or 1. But if r*s is bigger than q, which can easily happen, then r*s can never be a remainder when you divide by q, since when you divide by q, the remainder must be smaller than q. So the answer is E.