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Expert replies
by moreonalps » Sun Jan 20, 2008 3:43 pm
Researchers discovered that the failure of legislation passed in 1936 in France to improve the working conditions of bakers was due more to the fear that large conglomerates would gain footholds in small communities than to any inherent problem in the legislation.

1). more to the fear that large conglomerates would gain footholds in small communities than to any

2). to the fear that large conglomerates could gain footholds in small communities than to any

3). because of the fear that large conglomerates could gain footholds in small communities and also because there were

4). more to fearing that large conglomerates could gain footholds in small communities than any

5). because there was more of a fear that large conglomerates could gain footholds in small communities than to any

I will post correct answer later...
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Source: — Sentence Correction |

by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Sun Jan 20, 2008 4:00 pm
(A) is the only choice that has the correct idiom ("more to X than to Y") and doesn't distort the meaning of the sentence.

So (A) is correct, but not sure what your question is.
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by camitava » Sun Jan 20, 2008 10:52 pm
moreonalps, IMO B. Stuart is it possible to have construction like DUE MORE TO. But if you go with B, then no such issue comes. It also does a comparison. What's the OA?
Correct me If I am wrong


Regards,

Amitava
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by seekmba » Sun Jan 20, 2008 11:38 pm
IMO A, coz in B, the last phrase "than to any " reflects a comparision being made, In Ch B the first part will not include any comparision word, hence the sentence will not logically & structurally parallel.
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by Stuart@KaplanGMAT » Mon Jan 21, 2008 6:09 am
camitava wrote:moreonalps, IMO B. Stuart is it possible to have construction like DUE MORE TO. But if you go with B, then no such issue comes. It also does a comparison. What's the OA?
"due more to" is an acceptable construction.

"Bob's problem was due more to laziness than stupidity."


Or, in general,

"X was due more to A than to B."

(Note: the sentence doesn't have to be in the past tense, other tenses work too.)

(b) is missing the "more"... we can't leave poor old "than" hanging all by itself, it needs a buddy.
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by camitava » Mon Jan 21, 2008 7:49 pm
Thanks Stuart, got it now ...
Correct me If I am wrong


Regards,

Amitava
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by moreonalps » Mon Jan 21, 2008 8:39 pm
The official answer is A..I also thought it would be B..Stuart's explanation made things clear..Thanks a lot, Stuart and everyone for the response.
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by BTGmoderatorRO » Sun Jan 28, 2018 11:04 am
Option A.
I wouldn't agree with a construction of due more to' it does not make a perfect sense of construction, we shall consider other options with better construction.

Option B.
'due to' this is the correct sentence structure here and no other option carries a better construction as this, thus this is the correct answer.

Option C.
Out of context. 'due because' this option will not be considered as a possible choice answer. Thus, this option is incorrect\.

Option D.
This option suffers the same fate as option A above and will not be considered and a possible choice of answer.
This, this option is incorrect.

Option E.
'due because' will never make a sentence even to a blind man. This option is incorrect.
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