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by Marta Re » Tue Oct 18, 2011 1:32 am
I have some doubts about this exemple:
"None of their findings have been ever explained." (correct)

"None of their findings has been ever explained." (incorrect??)

I believe that if we have a noun used in a particular meaning only in plural (a researcher rather has findings not a finding) there must be a plural verb, not a singular, but please correct me if I'm wrong...
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by lunarpower » Tue Oct 18, 2011 2:52 am
Marta Re wrote:I have some doubts about this exemple:
"None of their findings have been ever explained." (correct)

"None of their findings has been ever explained." (incorrect??)

I believe that if we have a noun used in a particular meaning only in plural (a researcher rather has findings not a finding) there must be a plural verb, not a singular, but please correct me if I'm wrong...
the "none" issue is not going to be tested on the official exam, so you don't really have to worry about it.

the exam stays away from testing *anything* on which there is large-scale disagreement among usage experts -- and there is definitely lots of disagreement on this issue.
Ron has been teaching various standardized tests for 20 years.

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by Marta Re » Tue Oct 18, 2011 2:59 am
Thanks lunarpower for your reply, but actually I'm not preparing for any exam, I just want to know what is correct and what is not.
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