MGMAT pg. 48 (under SANAM rules) -
"Technically, none of + plural noun can take either a singular or a plural verb form."
But alas, there is no further explanation. SANAM rules would suggest a plural noun -> plural verb, such as "Some of the documents were stolen..." but "none of" seems to be an exception.
Pg. 63 even has the construction "Moreover, none of the items is parallel..."
I've tried looking online, but there is no consensus. Some say the "none of" = "not one of", but that would imply the verb should always be singular, like "No one".
Anyone know if this is just an unsettled grammar issue?
"Technically, none of + plural noun can take either a singular or a plural verb form."
But alas, there is no further explanation. SANAM rules would suggest a plural noun -> plural verb, such as "Some of the documents were stolen..." but "none of" seems to be an exception.
Pg. 63 even has the construction "Moreover, none of the items is parallel..."
I've tried looking online, but there is no consensus. Some say the "none of" = "not one of", but that would imply the verb should always be singular, like "No one".
Anyone know if this is just an unsettled grammar issue?












