european music

This topic has expert replies
User avatar
MBA Student
Posts: 403
Joined: Tue Dec 22, 2009 7:32 pm
Thanked: 98 times
Followed by:22 members

european music

by fibbonnaci » Wed Feb 03, 2010 10:24 pm
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music-whether ritual, dance, or worship-gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.

(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.

(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.

(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.

(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

OA later
Source: — Critical Reasoning |

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 777
Joined: Fri Jan 01, 2010 4:02 am
Location: Mumbai, India
Thanked: 117 times
Followed by:47 members

by komal » Wed Feb 03, 2010 10:34 pm
fibbonnaci wrote:One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music-whether ritual, dance, or worship-gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.

The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

Conclusion : Each music composition was so much coherent (intelligible, logically integrated) that the music became
independent (depended on nothing)

Because of these reasons European music had such a strong influence throughout the world and it is
a sophisticated achievement.

(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
Incorrect : Impact of music is discussed in the argument above. Hence this is compatible.

(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
Incorrect : The argument above explains one of the reasons of global influence of European music. This answer choice can be other reason. Hence this is compatible

(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
Incorrect : The argument above explains the defining forces of music. Hence this answer choice can also be compatible with the discussion above.

(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
Correct : Conclusion above states exactly opposite of what is stated in this sentence. Hence there is no compatibility.

(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.
Incorrect : This can be compatible because even European music (work of art) could have lost its appeal when it was presented to serve a function other than the original one.


(D) wins
Last edited by komal on Fri Feb 05, 2010 7:53 am, edited 1 time in total.

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 1560
Joined: Tue Nov 17, 2009 2:38 am
Thanked: 137 times
Followed by:5 members

by thephoenix » Wed Feb 03, 2010 10:39 pm
IMO E

i think passage has never mentioned any thing regarding loosing appeal

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 173
Joined: Tue Jul 07, 2009 11:18 pm
Location: Hyderabad
Thanked: 12 times

by vijay_venky » Fri Feb 05, 2010 1:23 am
IMO E

Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

Music as explained by the stimulus is not definitely one of them and so incompatible.

Legendary Member
Posts: 1035
Joined: Wed Aug 27, 2008 10:56 pm
Thanked: 104 times
Followed by:1 members

by scoobydooby » Fri Feb 05, 2010 6:31 am
would go with D.

music should stand independent of its source and have internal coherence(meaningful/logical)

D: "unintelligible " would mean meaningless or incomprehensible, so such a music cannot be internally coherent and stand on its own. =>goes against the passage

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 303
Joined: Sat Aug 22, 2015 10:23 am

by joseph32 » Sun May 15, 2016 11:14 pm
My intuition whispers that it is D