BTGmoderatorLU wrote:Source: Veritas Prep

If \(b\) and \(c\) do not equal 0, is \(a=\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\)?

1) \(a\) is an integer such that \(a > 2\).
2) \(b\) and \(c\) are both integers such that \(b>1\) and \(c>1\).

The OA is C

Certainly one of the statements alone is sufficient as the first does not have information about b and c, while the second does not have the information about a.

Given that \(b\) and \(c\) are both integers such that \(b>1\) and \(c>1\), the minimum values of b and c are 2, each. Thus, the maximum value of \(\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}= \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2} = 1\).

However, as per Statement 1, it is given that \(a > 2\); thus, \(a \ne\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\). The answer is no. Sufficient.

The correct answer: C

Hope this helps!

-Jay
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