kalpita123 wrote:I am able to solve the below problem using "number plugging" method,however, looking for some other ways to approach the problem:
If a is not equal to b, is [ 1/(a-b)]> ab ?
1) mod a > mod b
2) a<b
ans- E
Here's a way to do it using mathematical reasoning:
First, let's rephrase the expression:
We are asked whether:
1/(a-b) <ab
=> (a-b)^2*1/(a-b) <ab(a-b)^2 (multiplying both sides by (a-b)^2, since it is positive as a!=b)
=> (a-b)<ab(a-b)^2
=> (a-b)(1-ab(a-b)) <0.
So the question rephrases as Do (a-b) and (1-ab(a-b)) have opposite signs?
With that in mind, let's look at the statements:
1) |a| > |b|.
If a is positive, (a-b)>0, and (1-ab(positive)) may be positive or negative depending on sign of b. Insufficient.
2) a<b. If a<b, (a-b) <0, again using the same argument as above, depending on the sign of b, (1-ab(a-b)) can be positive or negative. Insufficient.
Combining the two, |a|>|b| but a<b. This means that a<0. But b may still be positive or negative, which again, may give us positive or negative values for (1-ab(a-b)). Still insufficient.
Hence
E is correct.
Although we didn't pick numbers, you can check the above reasoning using the following 2 cases:
1. a=-2, b=-1
2. a=-2, b=1
Let me know if this helps
