A contractor hires 100 men to finish a job in 50 days

This topic has expert replies
Source: — Problem Solving |

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 2663
Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
Location: Boston, MA
Thanked: 1153 times
Followed by:128 members
GMAT Score:770

by DavidG@VeritasPrep » Tue Jun 09, 2015 9:41 am
A contractor hires 100 men to finish a job in 50 days. After 14 days, n men leave. After some more days, the contractor hires 2n more men to complete the job on time. For how many days did these 2n men work?

A. 20
B. 18
C. 16
D. 12
E. 8
Tough question. First, let's find the total amount of work that needs to be done: 100 men * 50days = 5000 work-days.
100 men work for 14 days, so 100 * 14 = 1400 work-days are complete after 14 days. Leaving us with 3600 work-days to do in 36 days.

Now things get tougher. Let's say n = 50, so 50 mean leave. Now 50 men are working. We'll say those 50 men are working for y more days. During that time, they;'ll complete 50 * y = 50y more man-days worth of labor.

There were 3600 man-days left to complete, and the 50 men just finished another 50y, that will leave us with 3600 - 50y man-days left to do.

Now 2n more men show up. So 2*50 = 100 more men show up. Now we'll have 50 + 100 = 150 men working. We know that the 50 men had worked for y days, so if these 150 men are going to complete the job on time, there are 36 - y days left for them to work.

Summary: 150 men need to working for 36 - y days to complete 3600 - 50y worth of work.

150 * (36 - y) = 3600 - 50y
150 * 36 - 150y = 3600 - 50y
150 *36 - 3600 = 100y
36(150 - 100) = 100y
36*50 = 100y
1800 = 100y
18 = y

So 36 - y = 36 - 18 = 18.

(Confession: this took me more than two minutes.)
Veritas Prep | GMAT Instructor

Veritas Prep Reviews
Save $100 off any live Veritas Prep GMAT Course

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 2663
Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
Location: Boston, MA
Thanked: 1153 times
Followed by:128 members
GMAT Score:770

by DavidG@VeritasPrep » Tue Jun 09, 2015 9:51 am
Or backsolve:

So we've got 100 men working for the first 14 days. They do 1400 man-hours.

For the next y days, we'll have 50 men working (we'll keep n =50).

For the last 36 - y days, we'll have 150 men working.


Ultimately, we're looking for 36-y. If we test D, then 36 - y = 12, and y = 24.

In this scenario, we'll get the following:
100 men do 1400 man-days in 14 days, leaving us with 3600 man-days left.

50 men will work for 24 days, and do 50*24 = 1200 man-days worth of work. That leaves us with 2400 man-days left to do.

Now 150 men will have 12 days remaining. They'll only be able to do 150*12 = 1800 man-days. So 12 is too small. Eliminate D and E.


Now test B. Now 36 - y = 18, and y = 18.
100 men do 1400 man-days in 14 days, leaving us with 3600 man-days left.

50 men will work for 18 days, and do 50*18 = 900 man-days worth of work. That leaves us with 2700 man-days left to do.

Now 150 men will have 18 days remaining. They'll be able to do 150*18 = 2700 man-days. So B is our answer.
Last edited by DavidG@VeritasPrep on Tue Jun 09, 2015 10:03 am, edited 2 times in total.
Veritas Prep | GMAT Instructor

Veritas Prep Reviews
Save $100 off any live Veritas Prep GMAT Course

GMAT/MBA Expert

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 16207
Joined: Mon Dec 08, 2008 6:26 pm
Location: Vancouver, BC
Thanked: 5254 times
Followed by:1268 members
GMAT Score:770

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Tue Jun 09, 2015 9:59 am
gmat_guy666 wrote:A contractor hires 100 men to finish a job in 50 days. After 14 days, n men leave. After some more days, the contractor hires 2n more men to complete the job on time. For how many days did these 2n men work?

A. 20
B. 18
C. 16
D. 12
E. 8
IMPORTANT CONCEPT: To complete the job on time, the 2n NEW men must complete all of the work that was NOT completed by the n men who quit.

In other words, (work completed by the 2n NEW men) = (work NOT completed by the n QUITTERS)

work NOT completed by the n QUITTERS
The n quitters left the job after 14 days.
It was supposed to be a 50-day job, so the n quitters missed 36 days of work [50 - 14 = 36]
So, in TOTAL, the amount of work NOT completed by the n quitters = (36)(n) = 36n man-days

work completed by the 2n NEW men
To determine this, we need to know how many days these men worked.
Let x = the number of days the NEW men worked.
So, in TOTAL, the amount of work completed by the NEW workers = (x)(2n) = 2nx man-days

We started with (work completed by the 2n NEW men) = (work NOT completed by the n QUITTERS)
Now we have: 2nx = 36n
Divide both sides by 2n to get: x = 18

Answer: B

Cheers,
Brent
Last edited by Brent@GMATPrepNow on Tue Jun 09, 2015 10:15 am, edited 1 time in total.
Brent Hanneson - Creator of GMATPrepNow.com
Image

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Tue Jun 09, 2015 10:08 am
gmat_guy666 wrote:A contractor hires 100 men to finish a job in 50 days. After 14 days, n men leave. After some more days, the contractor hires 2n more men to complete the job on time. For how many days did these 2n men work?

A. 20
B. 18
C. 16
D. 12
E. 8
Let the rate for each man = 1 unit per day.
Rate for 100 men = 100 units per day.
In 50 days, the amount of work produced by all 100 men = 100*50 = 5000 units.
This is the value of the job.

In 14 days, the amount of work produced by 100 men = 100*14 = 1400 units.
Remaining work = 5000-1400 = 3600 units.
Since the job is finished on time, the remaining amount of time after 14 days = 50-14 = 36 days.
Let n = 50, implying that 100-50 = 50 men for a certain number of days and that 100+50 = 150 men work for the remaining number of days.
We can PLUG IN THE ANSWERS, which represent the number of days worked by the 150 men.
When the correct answer is plugged in, the remaining 3600 units will be completed in 36 days.

Answer choice D: 12 days for the 150 men, implying 24 days for the 50 men
Amount of work produced by 50 men in the first 24 days and by 150 men in the remaining 12 days = (50*24) + (150*12) = 1200 + 1800 = 3000.
Too little work is produced, implying that the 150 men must work for LONGER.
Eliminate D and E.

Answer choice B: 18 days for the 150 men, implying 18 days for the 50 men
Amount of work produced by 50 men in the first 18 days and by 150 men in the remaining 18 days = (50*18) + (150*18) = (50+150)(18) = 200*18 = 3600.
Success!

The correct answer is B.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 269
Joined: Sun Apr 27, 2014 10:33 pm
Thanked: 8 times
Followed by:5 members

by prachi18oct » Wed Jun 10, 2015 10:49 am
Hello experts,

One thing I don't understand is why have we assumed n = 50 and then solved ? Can we assume any such number?
What is the alternate solution ?
I tried to solve in the following way and got stuck.
Please suggest.

Let r = rate at which one ma works

100 * r * 50 = 1(job)
r = 1/5000

so when 100 men work for 14 days, work done =>
100 * 1/5000 * 14 = 7/25

Work remaining = 18/25

100-n men work for x days, leading to

(100-n)* 1/5000 * x = amount of work(w1)

Now 2n more men join to complete the work in remaining 36-x days

(100-n+2n) * 1/5000 *(36-x) = amount of work(w2)

SO w1 +w2 = 18/25

But this equation has 2 variables n & x.

How to solve?

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 2663
Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
Location: Boston, MA
Thanked: 1153 times
Followed by:128 members
GMAT Score:770

by DavidG@VeritasPrep » Wed Jun 10, 2015 11:05 am
O
ne thing I don't understand is why have we assumed n = 50 and then solved ?
I picked 50 to make the calculations friendly, but any number will work. Say I picked 20 for n.

Again, 100 men work for 14 days, so 100 * 14 = 1400 work-days are complete after 14 days. Leaving us with 3600 work-days to do in 36 days.

This time, n = 20, so 20 men leave. Now 80 men are working. We'll say those 80 men are working for y more days. During that time, they;'ll complete 80 * y = 80y more man-days worth of labor.

There were 3600 man-days left to complete, and the 80 men just finished another 80y, that will leave us with 3600 - 80y man-days left to do.

Now 2n more men show up. So 2*20 = 40 more men show up. Now we'll have 80 + 40 = 120 men working. We know that the 80 men had worked for y days, so if these 120 men are going to complete the job on time, there are 36 - y days left for them to work.

Summary: 120 men need to working for 36 - y days to complete 3600 - 80y worth of work.

120 * (36 - y) = 3600 - 80y
120 * 36 - 120y = 3600 - 80y
120 *36 - 3600 = 40y
36(120 - 100) = 40y
36*20 = 40y
(36*20)/40 = y
18 = y

So 36 - y = 36 - 18 = 18.

Any number we pick will yield the same result.
Veritas Prep | GMAT Instructor

Veritas Prep Reviews
Save $100 off any live Veritas Prep GMAT Course

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 2663
Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
Location: Boston, MA
Thanked: 1153 times
Followed by:128 members
GMAT Score:770

by DavidG@VeritasPrep » Wed Jun 10, 2015 11:37 am
Let r = rate at which one ma works

100 * r * 50 = 1(job)
r = 1/5000

so when 100 men work for 14 days, work done =>
100 * 1/5000 * 14 = 7/25

Work remaining = 18/25

100-n men work for x days, leading to

(100-n)* 1/5000 * x = amount of work(w1)

Now 2n more men join to complete the work in remaining 36-x days

(100-n+2n) * 1/5000 *(36-x) = amount of work(w2)

SO w1 +w2 = 18/25

But this equation has 2 variables n & x.

How to solve?
You were almost there.

You correctly calculated that the work that the remaining men have to do is: (100-n+2n) * 1/5000 *(36-x)

Simplify to (100 + n)/5000 * (36-x)

You also determined that the 100 - n men had done [(100 - n)/5000] * x worth of work.

Now we know that (100 + n)/5000 * (36-x) + [[(100 - n)/5000] * x]= 18/25 --> you saw this

If you multiply through by 5000 you get: (100 + n) * (36 - x) +[100 - n)*x] = 3600

3600 + 36n - 100x -nx + 100x - nx = 3600


Red terms cancel out. Leaving you with: 36n - nx - nx = 0
36n - 2nx = 0
36n = 2nx
36 = 2x
18 = x

Needless to say, this will be a slow and painful death on the GMAT. Brent has an excellent algebraic approach, or you can back-solve as Mitch did, or you can pick numbers.
Veritas Prep | GMAT Instructor

Veritas Prep Reviews
Save $100 off any live Veritas Prep GMAT Course

User avatar
Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 269
Joined: Sun Apr 27, 2014 10:33 pm
Thanked: 8 times
Followed by:5 members

by prachi18oct » Wed Jun 10, 2015 11:45 am
Ohh yes ! I just gave up before reaching there.

Thanks Dave!
Yeah I know this is not a GMAT friendly approach. I just wanted to solve without taking any value for n. Now I also know why it works for any value of n (as it cancels out anyway).

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 15539
Joined: Tue May 25, 2010 12:04 pm
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 13060 times
Followed by:1906 members
GMAT Score:790

by GMATGuruNY » Wed Jun 10, 2015 11:47 am
A value that will make the solution especially fast is n=100:

Let the rate for each man = 1 unit per day.
Rate for 100 men = 100 units per day.
In 50 days, the amount of work produced by all 100 men = 100*50 = 5000 units.
This is the value of the job.

In 14 days, the amount of work produced by 100 men = 100*14 = 1400 units.
Remaining work = 5000-1400 = 3600 units.
Since the job is finished on time, the remaining amount of time after 14 days = 50-14 = 36 days.
Let n = 100, implying that 100-100 = 0 men for a certain number of days and that 100+100 = 200 men work for the remaining number of days.
Implication:
All of the remaining work must be produced by the 200 men.
To produce the remaining 3600 units, the time required by the 200 men = w/r = 3600/200 = 18 days.

The correct answer is B.
Private tutor exclusively for the GMAT and GRE, with over 20 years of experience.
Followed here and elsewhere by over 1900 test-takers.
I have worked with students based in the US, Australia, Taiwan, China, Tajikistan, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia -- a long list of countries.
My students have been admitted to HBS, CBS, Tuck, Yale, Stern, Fuqua -- a long list of top programs.

As a tutor, I don't simply teach you how I would approach problems.
I unlock the best way for YOU to solve problems.

For more information, please email me (Mitch Hunt) at [email protected].
Student Review #1
Student Review #2
Student Review #3

Master | Next Rank: 500 Posts
Posts: 107
Joined: Tue Oct 07, 2014 3:50 am

by mallika hunsur » Thu Jun 11, 2015 5:07 am
GMATGuruNY wrote:A value that will make the solution especially fast is n=100:

Let the rate for each man = 1 unit per day.
Rate for 100 men = 100 units per day.
In 50 days, the amount of work produced by all 100 men = 100*50 = 5000 units.
This is the value of the job.

In 14 days, the amount of work produced by 100 men = 100*14 = 1400 units.
Remaining work = 5000-1400 = 3600 units.
Since the job is finished on time, the remaining amount of time after 14 days = 50-14 = 36 days.
Let n = 100, implying that 100-100 = 0 men for a certain number of days and that 100+100 = 200 men work for the remaining number of days.
Implication:
All of the remaining work must be produced by the 200 men.
To produce the remaining 3600 units, the time required by the 200 men = w/r = 3600/200 = 18 days.

The correct answer is B.
Hi Mitch,

Please can you help with the algebraic method, i.e. with variables-
If r be the unit of work done by 1 man in a day, then-
Eqn 1: Total work units= 100r X 50
Eqn 2: for 14 days work done = 100r X 14= 1400r
Eqn 3: n men leave so (100-n) men work for d days say, so-
Work done= (100-n)r X d =W1
Eqn 4: 2n men join back, and work for (50-14-d) days, so-
Work done = (100-n+2n)r X (36-d)= W2

W1+W2= 3600r

With this, I get-
d=18

Please can you help me understand where I've gone wrong!

Many thanks,
Mallika

User avatar
Legendary Member
Posts: 2663
Joined: Wed Jan 14, 2015 8:25 am
Location: Boston, MA
Thanked: 1153 times
Followed by:128 members
GMAT Score:770

by DavidG@VeritasPrep » Thu Jun 11, 2015 5:48 am
If r be the unit of work done by 1 man in a day, then-
Eqn 1: Total work units= 100r X 50
Eqn 2: for 14 days work done = 100r X 14= 1400r
Eqn 3: n men leave so (100-n) men work for d days say, so-
Work done= (100-n)r X d =W1
Eqn 4: 2n men join back, and work for (50-14-d) days, so-
Work done = (100-n+2n)r X (36-d)= W2

W1+W2= 3600r

With this, I get-
d=18
Mallika, that looks perfect. 18 is the correct answer!

(Also, note that using Mitch's brilliant approach of having n = 100, we don't have to do any real calculation at all. If 100 people need 36 days to do a certain amount of work, clearly 200 people would only need 18 days. (Twice as many people would need half as many days.)
Veritas Prep | GMAT Instructor

Veritas Prep Reviews
Save $100 off any live Veritas Prep GMAT Course

User avatar
GMAT Instructor
Posts: 1462
Joined: Thu Apr 09, 2015 9:34 am
Location: New York, NY
Thanked: 39 times
Followed by:22 members

by Jeff@TargetTestPrep » Tue Dec 19, 2017 6:58 am
gmat_guy666 wrote:A contractor hires 100 men to finish a job in 50 days. After 14 days, n men leave. After some more days, the contractor hires 2n more men to complete the job on time. For how many days did these 2n men work?

A. 20
B. 18
C. 16
D. 12
E. 8
We are given that 100 men will finish a job in 50 days; thus, the rate of the 100 men is 1/50 and the rate of each man is (1/50)/100 = 1/5000.

This is what we know:

The 100 men work for the first 14 days. Then n men leave and the (100 - n) men work for some number of days. Then 2n men join in (so now there are 100 - n + 2n = 100 + n men) and they all work for the remaining days and complete the job on time, in 50 days.

If we let x = the number of days the (100 - n) men work (after the first 14 days but before the 2n men join in), then (100 + 2n) men (after the 2n men join in) work for (36 - x) days, since the total number of days for the job is still 50. Thus, we can create the following equation:

100(1/5000)(14) + (100 - n)(1/5000)(x) + (100 + n)(1/5000)(36 - x) = 1

The 1 on the right-hand side of the equation represents the complete job and each of the addends on the left-hand side represents the fraction of the job the 100 men, (100 - n) men, and (100 + n) men contribute at different stages of the job, respectively.

Multiplying the equation by 5000, we have:

100(14) + (100 - n)(x) + (100 + n)(36 - x) = 5000

1400 + 100x - nx + 3600 - 100x + 36n - nx = 5000

5000 + 36n - 2nx = 5000

36n = 2nx

36 = 2x

18 = x

Since the extra 2n men actually work (36 - x) days, they work 36 - 18 = 18 days.

Answer: B

Jeffrey Miller
Head of GMAT Instruction
[email protected]

Image

See why Target Test Prep is rated 5 out of 5 stars on BEAT the GMAT. Read our reviews