The question:
Is 1/(a-b) < (b-a) ?
(1) a < b
(2) 1 < |a-b|
I approached this problem by rephrasing the question as
1/(a-b) < -(a-b) ?
==> 1 < -(a-b)^2
which is never true as the square of any number is positive and when you multiply that by a negative sign the inequality become
IS 1 < -ve number? Which is never true. The question can be answered irrespective of what (1) and (2) says. I am little confused ..
What is the best approach? Can someone help me please?
Is 1/(a-b) < (b-a) ?
(1) a < b
(2) 1 < |a-b|
I approached this problem by rephrasing the question as
1/(a-b) < -(a-b) ?
==> 1 < -(a-b)^2
which is never true as the square of any number is positive and when you multiply that by a negative sign the inequality become
IS 1 < -ve number? Which is never true. The question can be answered irrespective of what (1) and (2) says. I am little confused ..
What is the best approach? Can someone help me please?












