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(inequality) Is m/n>0?

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by Max@Math Revolution » Mon Sep 26, 2016 4:46 am
(ex 20) (inequality) Is m/n>0?
1) m+n>0
2) mn>0
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Source: — Data Sufficiency |

by Brent@GMATPrepNow » Mon Sep 26, 2016 5:12 am
Max@Math Revolution wrote:(ex 20) (inequality) Is m/n>0?

1) m + n > 0
2) mn > 0
Target question: Is m/n > 0

Statement 1: m + n > 0
This statement doesn't FEEL sufficient, so I'll TEST some values.
There are several values of m and n that satisfy statement 1. Here are two:
Case a: m = 1 and n = 1, in which case m/n = 1/1 = 1 and 1 > 0. So, m/n > 0
Case b: m = -1 and n = 2, in which case m/n = (-1)/2 = -0.5 and -0.5 < 0. So, m/n < 0
Since we cannot answer the target question with certainty, statement 1 is NOT SUFFICIENT

Aside: For more on this idea of plugging in values when a statement doesn't feel sufficient, you can read my article: https://www.gmatprepnow.com/articles/dat ... lug-values

Statement 2: mn > 0
If mn is positive, then there are two possible scenarios:
Scenario #1: m and n are both POSITIVE
Scenario #2: m and n are both NEGATIVE
In scenario #1, m/n = POS/POS = POS.
In scenario #2, m/n = NEG/NEG = POS.
So, in both possible scenarios, m/n > 0
Since we can answer the target question with certainty, statement 2 is SUFFICIENT

Answer: B

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by Max@Math Revolution » Wed Sep 28, 2016 3:17 am
==> If you change the original condition and problems, in the case of sign of inequality, squaring is the most important thing because squaring never changes the direction of the sign of inequality even if it's divided or multiplied since any number squared is a positive number. Hence, if you multiply n^2 by both sides, you get n2(m/n)>n2*0? --> mn>0?. Therefore, the answer is B.
Answer: B
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