Standard Deviation Question!

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Standard Deviation Question!

by Thatcher » Fri Oct 02, 2009 3:27 pm
Princeton Review
"1,012 GMAT Practice Questions"
Standard Deviation Drill (page 239)
-data sufficiency question

8. If set S consists of an odd number of even integers that have a normal distribution, what is the standard deviation of set S?

(1) The mean of set S is 4.

(2) The median of set S is 4.

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[spoiler]Book Answer: (C)[/spoiler]
"Statement (1) is not sufficient because it tells you the mean, but nothing about the other numbers in the set. You could Plug In two sets of numbers for the set and get two different standard deviation. Eliminate choices (A) and (D). Statement (2) is also insufficient. Again, you could Plug In two sets of numbers to get two different standard deviations. Eliminate choice (B). Combining the two statements tells you that the numbers in set S are consecutive, because in a consecutive set of numbers, the mean equals the median. If the numbers are consecutive, even integers and the mean is 4, you know that the standard deviation is 2."

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I agree that the only possible choices are (C) or (E). But! Why must the set be consecutive? For example, consider this set of even numbers,

{4, 6, 10, 12, 18}

The mean and median are both 10 yet the set is not consecutive. Correct? I thought for a set to be consecutive there had to be even spacing between numbers that were in ascending or descending order. Like:

{3,4,5,6,7,8} or {-5,-4,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,3}

Are the following considered consecutive number sets?

{5,10,15,20,25} or {-80, -84, -88, -92}

One last question:
Assume that the set of numbers in the book question is consecutive with a mean of 4, just like the author concluded in the answer. Why must the standard deviation be 2? The set could be ANY size. The only restrictions are that there are "an odd number of even integers." If there were 25 even, consecutive integers with a mean of 4, the standard deviation would surely not be 2! Therefore the information is insufficient and the answer is choice (E).

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Did I do everything right? Can you please explain consecutive number sets more clearly? Did I come to the correct conclusion? Thank you!
Source: — Data Sufficiency |

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Re: Standard Deviation Question!

by Ian Stewart » Sat Oct 03, 2009 3:38 am
Thatcher wrote:Princeton Review
"1,012 GMAT Practice Questions"
Standard Deviation Drill (page 239)
-data sufficiency question

8. If set S consists of an odd number of even integers that have a normal distribution, what is the standard deviation of set S?

(1) The mean of set S is 4.

(2) The median of set S is 4.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

[spoiler]Book Answer: (C)[/spoiler]
"Statement (1) is not sufficient because it tells you the mean, but nothing about the other numbers in the set. You could Plug In two sets of numbers for the set and get two different standard deviation. Eliminate choices (A) and (D). Statement (2) is also insufficient. Again, you could Plug In two sets of numbers to get two different standard deviations. Eliminate choice (B). Combining the two statements tells you that the numbers in set S are consecutive, because in a consecutive set of numbers, the mean equals the median. If the numbers are consecutive, even integers and the mean is 4, you know that the standard deviation is 2."
Thatcher, you're absolutely correct, on all counts. Both the question and the explanation given in the book are mathematical nonsense, for three reasons, two of which you pointed out. I've highlighted the mistakes in red above:

-When a set consists of consecutive even integers, the mean is equal to the median, but the reverse is not necessarily true. Many sets have equal mean and median but are not even symmetric, let alone consecutive; take {0,2,4,20,22,24, 68} for example.

-The standard deviation of a set of consecutive even integers will never be equal to 2. If you have three consecutive even numbers, the s.d. is less than 2, and if you have more than three, it will be greater than 2.

-A finite set of even integers can never have a 'normal distribution'. The normal distribution is infinite and continuous, though you don't need to know what that means for the GMAT. In any case, if a set is normally distributed, the mean and median are equal a priori, so the two Statements tell you identical information here - yet another reason why the answer could not be C.

Anyway, that's one of the most misleading explanations I've seen from a test prep company book - better to work from higher quality sources!
For online GMAT math tutoring, or to buy my higher-level Quant books and problem sets, contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com

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