Yes/No DS

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sakurle: Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts; Posts: 34; Joined: Thu Jan 08, 2009 6:24 pmFollowed by: 4 members; Thanked: 1 times

by sakurle » Fri Aug 21, 2009 7:19 pm

Is 1/p > r/(r.sq + 2)

1. p = r
2. r > 0

(By the way how to type r raised to 2 or r-square)

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Source: Beat The GMAT — Data Sufficiency | Fri Aug 21, 2009 7:19 pm

iamjakekim: Senior | Next Rank: 100 Posts; Posts: 36; Joined: Sun Jun 21, 2009 12:09 pm; Thanked: 1 times; GMAT Score:700

by iamjakekim » Fri Aug 21, 2009 8:07 pm

C

STM1. Since P=r, they can be either - or +, thus INS.

STM2. R = + does not say much either INS.

1+2 gives us that p=r and both are +.

Simplify it, and we get 1 > (r^2)/(r^2+2) hence YES !!

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